OK, but again, WHY is B-Theory the truth?
Many philosophers, William Lane Craig being one of them. Since you brought it up, why don’t you tell me which arguments you find persuasive?
I already mentioned the problem of an unreachable past, which I learned on this forum, and the grim reaper paradox, which is used by Craig and Alexander Pruss.
All of this comes from the presumption of a naturalistic worldview in your analysis. If you presuppose naturalism in historical analysis, you are not performing objective historical analysis
by definition. Nothing beyond the historical method and what it presupposes can be presupposed in objective historical analysis, otherwise you are simply writing dogma.
Now, you could modify your argument from improbability to not presuppose naturalism, but then you would have to be willing to throw out more or less all of ancient history with it.
In fact, that’s one of the reasons that I think God should appear to people in the modern day.
He does appear to people in the modern day. He just doesn’t appear specifically to non-believers just because they aren’t convinced by the arguments.
Ridiculous. First of all, Jesus’ miracles are not “magic”. Second, we CAN “sift through” all the stuff with objective historical analysis. Numerous scholars have named criteria which we can use to verify what Jesus said and did, as well as similar criteria for ancient heroes… most of which the ancient heroes fail.
No, I don’t think that an empty grave in any way implies that the previous occupant got up and walked away. That would be the last thing I would think.
Quite frankly, nobody cares if you’re convinced, they care if the explanation is the best. Can you give a better explanation for the empty tomb? Don’t forget to account for the visions the apostles experienced.
As to the stories being told about him coming back from the dead, the mere fact that people are circulating such stories does not mean that such stories are true. If right now, you heard a ring at the doorbell, and when you answered, there were a half dozen strangers on your doorstep, trying to convince that they’d seen their dead buddy Jimmy up and about, would you believe them? Would you say “My God, unverifiable stories from total strangers who have done nothing to earn my trust? It must be true!” I wouldn’t, and I don’t think you would either.
No, but if Jimmy appeared to me, I would. Or we found his tomb empty and there were no possibility of the people lying or being deluded.
Everything that I’ve read would indicate otherwise, that most scholars agree that Matthew, Mark, and Luke were not written by those who later Christians ascribed them to.
The majority of scholars also affirms the historicity of the exorcism and healing stories (though not necessarily a supernatural explanation). Do you agree with them there, just because they’re “most scholars”. And while it
is the majority of scholars who support your position, it is a relatively small majority compared to the majority that makes a certain position inherently more probable as a result in most other cases, especially considering that most in the “majority” are in certain “camps” of scholarship to begin with, while in most cases a non-fallacious appeal to majority entails them being from various camps.
In any case, you have to actually give reasons as to why we should believe that they were written by these people. You and I can quote different scholars back and forth until we’re blue in the face, it will get us nowhere.
Due to the unanimous internal and external attestation (i.e. Church Fathers) to authorship, the burden is on you to demonstrate that they are not who they are claimed to be by.
Really? How did you determine that?
See
here, hit CTRL + F, and enter “critical scholars give”.
In any case, we have the same problem as above: we can’t simply quote some scholar as being correct, that’s an “appeal to authority” fallacy.
Actually, it isn’t fallacious if the authority represents a majority, and that majority is vast and encompasses multiple camps in the field. It does, so it isn’t a fallacy. It’s an induction.
You have to actually provide reasons as to why you think that this passage can be traced back to within three years of the event.
No, you have to refute those scholars’ reasons.
Even if it can be, that really doesn’t mean much. Myths and legends have sprung up much more quickly than that. Even if it was close to the time of Jesus, we have no reason to believe that the person who developed it knew Jesus. There were plenty of people alive during that time who had never met him. Why should we trust this tale?
Because, unlike the cases you mention, devoted followers of Jesus who **actually saw him **were out and about at this time, and if they heard lies being spread about him, especially lies that “took out” from the amount of “limited glory” they believed in, they would want to quell it as best as possible. See
tektonics.org/qt/secretmess.html for an explanation of context.
I admit that we can never be completely sure. But if I had taken the best precautions and ensured that I was still mentally healthy, I would be reasonably certain that God had really appeared to me.
So why don’t you care about modern public miracles like Eucharistic Miracles? Why don’t you change based on them?
