Why didn’t God ‘explicitly’ say in His Word that He and his Son are the same in both substance and essence or that Jesus has both a divine and a human nature? Surely, God would have made sure that these truths were explicitly recorded.
The great Christological controversies and heresies in the early Church arose because Scripture alone is not clear and definitive with regard to these truths.
You’ve got it backwards in respect to the Christological controversies and the doctrines that subsequently formed. The Christology of the Councils was settled by appealing to the Scriptures which revealed and supported it . The doctrines regarding the Person of Jesus Christ weren’t first developed by men and then an appeal was made to the Scriptures to support their preconceived notions. The historic, Christological doctrines were developed based on Biblical (Divine) revelation.
This was not the case with your Marian doctrines, such as her “immaculate conception,” “perpetual sinlessness,” “perpetual virginity,” “bodily assumption” and her alleged present position as “Queen of heaven.” These doctrines were first formed by men and subsequently introduced into Christianity. When challenged appeal was/is made to the Scriptures for support, not
exegetically (as with the Christological doctrines), but
eisegetically,
i.e., by reading those fully formed Marian doctrines
into selected texts. Two of the most salient examples presented on this thread are: (
1) the idea of “sinlessness” imposed upon the Greek word
kecaritomene in Lk. 1:28 and, (
2)
spiritualizing O.T. Scriptures and presenting them as
types of Mary.
Our Christological and Marian dogmas were definitively declared in response to the challenges made against traditional orthodox beliefs by heretics.
It is true that the historic, Christological doctrines were defined and developed from the Scriptures as defense against false teachings (an
exegetical study of the Scriptures proved their falsity), but your Marian dogmas are
extra-biblical, formed and developed not out of divine revelation but out of human imagination, human logic. They’re imposed upon the Scriptures, not formed from them (
exegesis vs.
eisegesis).
Succinctly, your Marian dogmas are not ascertained from an exegetical study of the Scriptures, but were adopted as dogma
in spite of this fact. They were subsequently dropped as dogma by most of “Protestantism”
because of this fact.
Bottom line, even Catholics admit that Catholicism is not necessarily a Biblically based religion - it’s traditionally based. The Bible (Scriptures) being just a part of its “tradition.” Catholics don’t need Biblical support for any of their Marian dogmas. As stated on this thread (and many others) Catholic authority rests in its church hierarchy and
tradition.
The O.P. essentially asked why the sinlessness of Mary is not (
exegetically) taught in the Bible. Catholics defensively try to prove that it is (but utterly fail). Why waste time and energy? The authority behind its Marian doctrines is not the Scriptures but its
tradition. These must be accepted and personally believed because that’s the word that comes from the front office - whether it’s Biblical or not.