Why doesn't the Bible say that Mary was sinless?

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ChrisWRIT said:
Gen. 1:9
“This is the account of Noah. Noah was a righteous man, blameless among the people of his time, and he walked with God.”

Job 1:1
“In the land of Uz there lived a man whose name was Job. This man was blameless and upright; he feared God and shunned evil.”

God even confirmed this Himself – Job 1:8
“Then the LORD said to Satan, “Have you considered my servant Job? There is no one on earth like him; he is blameless and upright, a man who fears God and shuns evil.”

Luke 1:5-6
“In the time of Herod king of Judea there was a priest named Zechariah, who belonged to the priestly division of Abijah; his wife Elizabeth was also a descendant of Aaron. Both of them were upright in the sight of God, observing all the Lord’s commandments and regulations blamelessly.”

The above verses have been offered to ”Prove” that scripture, itself, teaches that there were/are sinless people (free from personal sin; post #925).

Those verses prove no such thing.

What is accomplished is an assertion only, that being that those verses, based upon some key words (“righteous,” “blameless,” “upright,” and “observing all the Lord’s commandments and regulations blamelessly”), teaches that these people were sinless.”

That doesn’t Prove anything, but only asserts something.

What must be proven is that “righteous,” “blameless,” and “upright,” when used in scripture, means sinless, and that more than from a dictionary, but reasoned proof from scripture.

Until that is done, then the offering of the verses is pointless.

Scripture teaches that those words don’t mean that one is “sinless.”
 
Disagree.

The IC is an innovation.

The often quoted Latin Catholic theologian, saint, and doctor of the Church–Thomas Aquinas–did not subscribe to this strange dogma.
  1. Sources Please
  2. As great a theologian Thomas Aquinas was, I don’t recall anyone claiming him to be an infallible authority.
 
Disagree.

The IC is an innovation.

The often quoted Latin Catholic theologian, saint, and doctor of the Church–Thomas Aquinas–did not subscribe to this strange dogma.
In the context of Our Lady’s sinlessness, it would hardly be fair to call the Immaculate Conception an “innovation” considering the lengthy history it had in pious thought (Aquinas and Catherine of Siena notwithstanding). Though one might hold reservations about the necessity of raising it to the status of a *de fide *belief, to charcterize it as an innovation would be incorrect since it is part of the seamless Tradition of her perpetual sinlessness.

Now back to the topic of the thread.

Scripture does not refer explicitly to the sinlessness of Our Lady because the conciliar doctrines concerning the Person of Jesus Christ had not yet been developed. THOSE definitions against Arianism & Nestorianism brought Our Lady to the fore in theology because those definitions REQUIRED a fully human mother as the instrument by which the Incarnation of God is achieved in human flesh. Those definitions REQUIRED giving Mary the title, Mother of God. All mainstream Protestant denominations acknowledge Mary as Mother of God.

Everything else we understand, believe and love about Our Lady extends from the doctrinal definitions concernng the Incarnation, and those definitions are not explicit in Scripture. If they were, we would not have needed 4 Ecumenical Councils to hammer out the details.
 
I don’t see anything in these verses that says these people were sinless.
Psst – Look for the words “BLAMELESS” and “RIGHTEOUS”.:rolleyes:
If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us. 1 John 1:8-10
Now, now, try answering the question instead of trying to apply an out-of-context Bible verse. :tsktsk:

How could Christ have set a sinless “example” to be followed that is impossible to follow? Was Peter wrong? Is Scripture wrong?
The evidence that Mary was sinless is tradition but Gods written Word says all of humanity is sinful and Mary being a human being was a sinner, period.
Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: Rom 5:12
I can cut-and-paste too, EI. 😃

*Amen. Romans 5:12 refers to the reality of original sin, do you agree with that as well?

Yes, Mary was human, like all other descendants of Adam, she was subject to contracting original sin. But by a special intervention of God, and NOT because of anything to do with her own merits, she was preserved by Christ at the moment of her conception from the stain of original sin.

Christ was her savior, just as He is “…the Savior of all men, and especially of those who believe.” (1 Tim. 4:10)

Christ fulfilled the 4th commandment, to “honor your father & mother”, better than anyone else could or can, by preemptively saving His mother at the moment of her conception!*
Is believing what God has said in His written Word flawed presumption?

No, but believing that the Bible (which is the same thing as “God’s written Word”), is self-interpreting IS a flawed presumption.

In fact it is a man-made presumption that negates the Word of God.

Even the apostles had to have the Scriptures explained to them by Jesus to understand all that had been prophesied in the OT about Him.

Luke 24:27 (I recommend reading the entire passage, Luke 24:13-35):
“And beginning with Moses and all the Prophets, he explained to them what was said in all the Scriptures concerning himself.”

Acts also shows that scripture could not be self-interpreting, but had to be explained:

Acts 8:30-31, 34-35
Then Philip ran up to the chariot and heard the man reading Isaiah the prophet. ‘Do you understand what you are reading?’ Philip asked.
‘How can I,’ he said, ‘unless someone explains it to me?’ So he invited Philip to come up and sit with him.”
“The eunuch asked Philip, ‘Tell me, please, who is the prophet talking about, himself or someone else?’
Then Philip began with that very passage of Scripture and told him the good news about Jesus.”


Cheers,

Chris
 
If I am not mistaken, and I apologize if this was already discussed, the word that St Paul uses here is “polloi”. The more accurate translation would be “many”, not “all”.

Just a quick linguistic issue (though I am far from an expert). :o
In Rom. 3:23 it’s pantas.
 
Mickey << The often quoted Latin Catholic theologian, saint, and doctor of the Church–Thomas Aquinas–did not subscribe to this strange dogma. >>

Here is what St. Thomas Aquinas did teach:

Since Mary would not have been a worthy mother of God if she had ever sinned, we assert without qualification that Mary never committed a sinful act, fatal or non-fatal: You are wholly beautiful, my love, and without blemish. Christ is the source of grace, author of it as God and instrument of it as man, and, since Mary was closest to Christ in giving him his human nature, she rightly received from him fullness of grace (cf. Luke 1:28) : grace in such abundance as to bring her closest in grace to its author, receiving into herself the one who was full of every grace [for others], and, by giving birth to him, bringing grace to all.” (St. Thomas Aquinas, Summa Theologica IIIa:27.4-5)

The whole “debate” during the medieval period was whether Mary was sinless from conception, or sinless after conception but cleansed before birth. The personal sinlessness of Mary from her birth was already well-settled at this point. The question is whether this extended to her conception and made her free of original sin. You can read my entire article to see how this “debate” was resolved by Blessed John Duns Scotus.

Contrast this with the “debate” in this thread that anti-Catholic evangelicals want to bring up: Mary was a sinner just like every other Christian (and they quote Romans 3:23 to that effect). That is clearly the “innovation” in the history of the Church, and this shows that anti-Catholic evangelicals are completely out of touch with even what the original Protestant Reformers believed about Mary:

“In regard to the Marian doctrine of the Reformers, we have already seen how unanimous they are in all that concerns Mary’s holiness and perpetual virginity. Whatever the theological position which we may hold today, in regard to the Immaculate Conception and Assumption of Mary it is right to know, perhaps to our great surprise, that these two Catholic dogmas were accepted by certain Reformers, not of course in their present form but certainly in the form that was current in their day.” (Max Thurian, Mary: Mother of All Christians, page 197)

Martin Luther, the German founder of the Lutherans, certainly believed in the sinlessness of the Virgin Mary, and some argue he accepted the Immaculate Conception as well (see his quote in my article, from Sermon on the Day of the Conception of Mary, Mother of God, 1527; cited in Thurian, page 197)

Ulrich Zwingli, the Swiss Protestant Reformer, does not see (unlike some Calvinist arguments) in the assertion of Mary’s perfect sanctity any violation of Christ’s humanity (see his quote in my article, from Annotationes in Evangelium Lucae, and sermon on “Mary, ever virgin, Mother of God” in 1524, cited in Thurian, page 23, 76)

Heinrich Bullinger (1504-1575), “who represents the second generation of the Reformation and a kind of stabilization of Reformed doctrine,” and who was Cranmer’s brother-in-law, and Zwingli’s successor said:

“What pre-eminence in the eyes of God the Virgin Mary had on account of her piety, her faith, her purity, her saintliness and all her virtues, so that she can hardly be compared with any of the other saints, but should by rights be rather elevated above all of them…”; “…And if she who was wholly pure from her birth did not disdain to be purified, that is to say to receive the blessing of purification, is this not all the more reason why those who fall under the yoke of the law by reason of their real impurity should observe the same?”; “…we believe, that the pure and immaculate embodiment of the Mother of God, the Virgin Mary, the Temple of the Holy Spirit, that is to say her saintly body, was carried up into heaven by the angels…” (cited in Thurian, page 89, 197, 198)

French Reformed pastor Charles Drelincourt (1595-1669), “who well represents the Reformed tradition of the 17th century”:

“We do not simply believe that God has favoured the holy and blessed Virgin more than all the Patriarchs and the Prophets, but also that He has exalted her above all Seraphim. The angels can only qualify as servants of the Son of God, the creatures and workmanship of his hands; but the holy Virgin is not only the servant and the creature but also the Mother of this great and living God.” (cited in Thurian, page 89)

The “debate” in this thread is ridiculous considering the above. If you want to argue some nuance between east and west on original sin, that’s fine. I have a quote from Orthodox theologian Meyendorff to that effect:

“Quotations can easily be multiplied, and they give clear indications that the Mariological piety of the Byzantines would probably have led them to accept the definition of the dogma of the Immaculate Conception of Mary as it was defined in 1854 [by Pope Pius IX], if only they had shared the Western doctrine of original sin.” (John Meyendorff, Byzantine Theology, page 148)

The difference between east and west at this point is not over the sinlessness of Mary, but over our differences on original sin. We all (Catholics and Orthodox) teach she is the All-Holy (Panagia) Mother of God. It is clearly the much later Protestant (non-Catholic) Christians who are the innovators on this doctrine. ALL the evidence is layed out in my article.

Phil P
 
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