I had a discussion after mass with a friend (who is not a Catholic) a few weeks ago and he asked why we do not say the entire Lord’s Prayer. I explained what it wasn’t in the Bible and was not accepted by the early church but he was most assured that it was in the Bible. My Bible (NAB) does not contain the “For thine is the kingdom and the power and the glory forever and ever”, however when I looked into the King James version, it’s right there and even in red! This seems like such a huge difference in translations! Jesus either said it or he did not! I am rather confused. Can you explain why this might be in one translation but not another? Thanks!
The earliest transcripts of Matthew 6:13 do not record Jesus saying “for the kingdom, the power and the glory are yours, now and forever”. This is a doxology added to the Lord’s Prayer by pious Christians as noted in such early writings as The Didache.
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