N
Non_Serviam
Guest
I’ll try once more.Non Serviam;
If your intent is to parse the Scripture (Old and New) into discreet packets and “read[ing] the passage from their point in time and confine yourself to what had been revealed up to that point,” then you have succeeded.
However, you are assuming Scripture to be “interpreted” that way. Catholics and Orthodox have NEVER taught that what was compiled into the canon (officially by Pope Damasus I in 382) was a blow-by-blow description of what constitutes Christianity.
The early Church was all about the Real Presence, it was the liturgy that was of paramount importance. The Bible was compiled we believe (under the guidance of the Holy Spirit) to support that liturgy. And what was written was never intended to support a “You Are There” playscript.
It doesn’t matter what the Jews thought who left him there. What mattered was what occurred later as recounted also in St Luke’s Gospel, chapter 22, verses 15 et seq.
The ‘gnaw on me’ argument is not on point. Their reaction does not constitute commentary on interpreting St John’s account.
The point may be how so many of us pick and choose verses and snippets of phrases and words and haggle over the sandals and belt when Scripture and the Magisterium teaches us to look at the whole sweep of events and teachings of God-with-us.
I hope this helps.
Robert
Robert, I approach the Gospel accounts as a record of events that actually happened (perhaps you don’t, I don’t know at this point based on your comments) which are objective facts.
To understand what Scripture is saying, it is important to consider these facts-Catholic scriptural interpretation holds that the literal sense of a biblical text is a foundation for all the other senses.
We read in the passage that the Jews had difficulty with what was said-to understand what the difficulty was, we need to understand what they took Jesus’ words to mean. Since the Eucharist hadn’t yet been instituted, they couldn’t have taken his words as a reference to the Eucharist. Therefore Jesus teaching on the Eucharist and Real Presence isn’t the Literal sense of the passage. It may be the spiritual, allegorical or anagogical sense of the passage, but not the literal. (Catechism “The Holy Spirit, Interpreter of Scripture”)
The catechism points out that the literal sense of a passage is found by exegesis-the interpretation and understanding of a text on the basis of the text itself-this means what the Jews thought is important to understand the literal sense of the text-the foundation upon which all the other senses rest.
Demean this as you will with straw man descriptions of playscripts and such, it doesn’t invalidate exegesis as the basis of both sound biblical and general textual scholarship.
Did the early church see this passage as useful to teach about the Real Presence? Yes. Does this make that the literal sense of the passage? No.
Is Luke 22 important in understanding the full counsel of Scripture and the doctrine of the Real Presence? Yes. Do the events cited in Luke 22 change the literal sense of John 6? No.
A belt can prove useful if one wishes to gird up his loins with Truth. The OP wanted to discuss the literal sense of the passage and I’ve engaged in that discussion to try and get at the truth of the assertion-if you feel the need to defend the papacy, sacraments and magesterium from attack, then there are better targets for you to choose since I’m not challenging any of those items in this discussion.
What I am challenging is the rhetorical tactic of calling the Eucharistic interpretation the passage the “literal sense” and then using that phrase to attack individuals who claim to believe in a literal interpretation of the Scriptures. It’s not a worthy tactic to defend the Real Presence.
I hope this clarifies things for you.
NS