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Jaaanosik
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Please, explain how something becomes a Natural Moral Law?It is from the Natural Moral Law etc --not the “laws of nature”. It is from the very nature of the Marital Act.
Please, explain how something becomes a Natural Moral Law?It is from the Natural Moral Law etc --not the “laws of nature”. It is from the very nature of the Marital Act.
scborromeo.org/ccc/p3s1c3a1.htm#1955Please, explain how something becomes a Natural Moral Law?
The natural law is written and engraved in the soul of each and every man, because it is human reason ordaining him to do good and forbidding him to sin . . . But this command of human reason would not have the force of law if it were not the voice and interpreter of a higher reason to which our spirit and our freedom must be submitted.5
Where then are these rules written, if not in the book of that light we call the truth? In it is written every just law; from it the law passes into the heart of the man who does justice, not that it migrates into it, but that it places its imprint on it, like a seal on a ring that passes onto wax, without leaving the ring.7 The natural law is nothing other than the light of understanding placed in us by God; through it we know what we must do and what we must avoid. God has given this light or law at the creation.8
For there is a true law: right reason. It is in conformity with nature, is diffused among all men, and is immutable and eternal; its orders summon to duty; its prohibitions turn away from offense . . . . To replace it with a contrary law is a sacrilege; failure to apply even one of its provisions is forbidden; no one can abrogate it entirely.9
Theft is surely punished by your law, O Lord, and by the law that is written in the human heart, the law that iniquity itself does not efface.11
The Natural Moral Law consists in a participation in the wisdom and the goodness of God.scborromeo.org/ccc/p3s1c3a1.htm#1955
I. THE NATURAL MORAL LAW
1956 The natural law, present in the heart of each man and established by reason, is universal in its precepts and its authority extends to all men. It expresses the dignity of the person and determines the basis for his fundamental rights and duties:
…Code:**For there is a true law: right reason. It is in conformity with nature**, is diffused among all men, and is immutable and eternal; its orders summon to duty; its prohibitions turn away from offense . . . . To replace it with a contrary law is a sacrilege; failure to apply even one of its provisions is forbidden; no one can abrogate it entirely.9
The natural law which is inscribed by the Creator on the heart of every person consists in a participation in the wisdom and the goodness of God. It expresses that original moral sense which enables one to discern by reason the good and the bad. It is universal and immutable and determines the basis of the duties and fundamental rights of the person as well as those of the human community and civil law.
Natual law does not = laws of nature.The Natural Moral Law consists in a participation in the wisdom and the goodness of God.
How? Where do we find the wisdom and the goodness of God? In the nature.
We recognize with our reason (what God inscribed in our heart) that something is wise and good based on studying God’s design in the nature, how it conforms with nature.
“For there is a true law: right reason. It is in conformity with nature,…”
Please, think!Natual law does not = laws of nature.
Please listen to the programs linked above.
Please listen.Please, think!
The conformity to nature is a foundation of the Natural Law. That’s how we find out what is wise and good by God’s design.
If that was not the case then any man can says anything and claim that’s what God inscribed on my heart and this is the Natural Law. Right?
I did and show me if there is something that contradicts what I said what Natural Law is.Please listen.![]()
Make sure to listen to both shows. Very informative.I did
Can the Natural Moral Law be the same for all the people? How?Make sure to listen to both shows. Very informative.
I guess I don’t understand how the church saying you shouldn’t use contraceptions doesn’t follow from the natural law… (I’m not trying to get into the whole argument about the difference between the ‘laws of nature’ and the ‘natural moral laws’. I’m not sure I understand the difference being put forward)It seems the fact remains that this is because the Church says so and not that it was observed and deduced from the laws of nature.
There is nothing wrong when a sperm does not meet an ovum.
The Church says use your brain, reason and it’s your call when you try and go for it.
Why is the Church saying how you go about something that is not wrong?
Let me use an extreme example. Why is the Church not saying that everybody has to sing at a mass? Is it a sin when you do not sing at the mass?
Please, read the title again.I guess I don’t understand how the church saying you shouldn’t use contraceptions doesn’t follow from the natural law… (I’m not trying to get into the whole argument about the difference between the ‘laws of nature’ and the ‘natural moral laws’. I’m not sure I understand the difference being put forward)
The point is that the church looks at the nature of sex and the sex drive, and sees that it is aimed both at procreation and unity. It is naturally designed so that there are times when sex will not lead to pregnancy. (its not like the church believes a woman ought always to be pregnant) The question is whether or not it is alright to purposefully remove the procrative aspect from sex. To purposefully remove the procreative aspect from sex disrupts and tampers with the natural end of sex. To have sex when infertile does not purposefully remove the procreative aspect. Rather, it naturally gives a couple the opportunity to deepen their relationship without it resulting in a pregnancy every time, which would put strains on their marriage pretty quickly.
Can you please clarify why you think that if it is against the laws of nature to use contraception it is against the laws of nature to have sex while infertile?
Quote from the Document above:I am trying to find out the opposite, why every act is supposed to be ordered to procreation.
How do we know that it’s willed by God to be inseparable?Quote from the Document above:
**“Therefore, among the fundamental moral principles of conjugal life, it is necessary to keep in mind “the inseparable connection, willed by God and unable to be broken by man on his own initiative, between the two meanings of the conjugal act: the unitive meaning and the procreative meaning””
**
“The Church has always taught the intrinsic evil of contraception, that is, of every marital act intentionally rendered unfruitful. This teaching is to be held as definitive and irreformable. Contraception is gravely opposed to marital chastity; it is contrary to the good of the transmission of life (the procreative aspect of matrimony), and to the reciprocal self-giving of the spouses (the unitive aspect of matrimony); it harms true love and denies the sovereign role of God in the transmission of human life.”
For one — the Magisterium of the Church which God has willed to give the authority to teach etc teaches that such is the nature of the marital act and contraception is a grave evil. Hence via the authority given by Christ Jesus the Logos and Son of God (and such of course extends too to the interpretation of the Natural Law by the way).How do we know that it’s willed by God to be inseparable?