Why infinite regress is impossible?

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Gorgias:
If the universe is finite, then its boundary, likewise, is finite!
What is outside the boundary?
Nothing. In fact, even the ‘boundary’ is not a ‘thing’, but a concept.
By using a stereographic projection, this set of interval segments can be mapped in a 1-1 manner onto the whole real line showing that there is no contradiction in assuming an infinite number of time segments in a physical system.
That would lead merely to an assertion of ‘uncountability’, not ‘infinity’, wouldn’t it?
 
An uncountable number of objects is automatically infinite.
Hmm… good point. I guess I was thinking about bounded, countably infinite sets. Sort of in a “Zeno’s paradox” kind of way. Although there are an infinite number of points between, say, two posts one mile apart, and Zeno’s paradox asserts that, if you go half way in each time period, you’ll never reach your destination, nevertheless you reach a point where you can’t physically go “half the distance” – the distances are too small.

So, although there are an infinite number of points, you’re bounded – you converge to the end of the line.

In the case of an “infinite regress”, though, it needs to be unbounded in order to work. And, worse, there’s no convergence going on – you just keep going back another iteration, and another, and another. Therefore, this cannot lead to the kind of answer it purports to find.
 
So, although there are an infinite number of points, you’re bounded – you converge to the end of the line.
That is not a problem because there is a way of mapping a bounded interval onto the whole unbounded real line in a 1-1 bijective manner.
Let f(x) = ln(x/(1-x)). Let 0 < x <1, be the unit interval with x between 0 and 1 but not including the two endpoints. Then f maps this unit interval onto the whole real line.
For example.
f(0.5) = 0
f(1/n) → - infinity as 1/n → 0
f(n/(n+1)) → + infinity as n/(n+1) → 1.
So f(<0, 1>) = R the whole real line from – infinity to + infinity.
You can also go the reverse way and map the whole unbounded real line onto the bounded unit interval <0,1> by using the inverse transformation g(x) = 1/ (1 + exp(-x)).
 
It’s also possible that our universe is a surface and not a volume. Anyone with a background in topology should know what I mean. Look at a basketball. The interior is a three dimensional volume. The “boundary” is a two dimensional surface curved in 3D space. You can also consider the Earth. It has a 3D volume but the part we live on can be mapped as a two dimensional surface. The Earth is round, it has no edge (for us surface dwellers. the mole people might map the earth differently).

Likewise, the universe could be a surface, specifically a 3D surface curving through four dimensional space on itself. Like a sailor on Earth’s ocean, if you traveled forever in one direction (assuming traveling faster than the expansion is possible) you might never reach an edge, but simply discover that the universe is “round.”

Probably not a 3-sphere, but some other manifold. Our universe might not have a boundary. It might be a boundary.
 
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Our universe might not have a boundary. It might be a boundary.
OK, but if the universe U is the (3D) boundary of (4D) M, then what is M ? For example, the surface of the earth is a boundary, but it is the boundary of a solid planet.
 
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Wesrock:
Our universe might not have a boundary. It might be a boundary.
OK, but if the universe U is the (3D) boundary of (4D) M, then what is M ? For example, the surface of the earth is a boundary, but it is the boundary of a solid planet.
We don’t know. Maybe it’s nothing (not even space). Maybe it’s a real part of creation and the universe and we just haven’t learned to tunnel into a fourth dimension yet.
 
No. The ‘boundary’ is a construct, not a real entity. Therefore, there’s no such thing as “the boundary of the boundary”, “the boundary of the boundary of the boundary”, etc, etc.
No, boundary is necessary and it is real when you deal with finite volume.
 
Infinite regress is impossible because it requires that something exists that is not ground in God.
 
This is of course not an argument.
Perhaps I need to expound.

God created everything.
God cannot be part of an infinite regress because he is not caused by anything.
Therefore nothing that exists can be part of an infinite regress.
 
I thought I didn’t need to support it but okay.

“I believe in one God,
the Father almighty,
maker of heaven and earth,
of all things visible and invisible.”
-Nicene Creed

It follows because if God created everything, He is in every chain of causes and effects. If He cannot be in a chain that regresses infinitely, and He is in all chains then no chain regresses infinitely.
 
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I thought I didn’t need to support it but okay.

“I believe in one God,
the Father almighty,
maker of heaven and earth,
of all things visible and invisible.”
-Nicene Creed

It follows because if God created everything, He is in every chain of causes and effects. If He cannot be in a chain that regresses infinitely, and He is in all chains then no chain regresses infinitely.
Here we are arguing why infinite regress is unacceptable. That is one of the thing one has to prove in order to reach to the conclusion that God exists.
 
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That is one of the thing one has to prove in order to reach to the conclusion that God exists.
Okay, I did not know that this is what you were trying to do. Although, there are other proofs for God’s existence.
 
God created everything.
From a scientific point of view, this is a reasonable point of view: after all, we can’t see further back than the beginning of the Big Bang. So… can it be proven empirically? Of course not; but it can’t be disproven, either.

However, from the theological point of view, it can be demonstrated. So… “unsupported”? Not quite.

… and that means that the proof holds. 👍
 
Can you count backwards from Infinity and get to Zero?

That is the same thing as claiming Infinite regression is possible
Can you count forwards from zero and get to infinity?

That is the same thing as claiming infinite regression is impossible.
 
From a scientific point of view, this is a reasonable point of view: after all, we can’t see further back than the beginning of the Big Bang. So… can it be proven empirically? Of course not; but it can’t be disproven, either.

However, from the theological point of view, it can be demonstrated. So… “unsupported”? Not quite.

… and that means that the proof holds. 👍
Well, some of the proof for existence of God works based on the fact that infinite regress is unacceptable. You cannot use those proof to prove that infinite regress is unacceptable.
 
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