Why is Homosexuality Wrong?

[CopticChristian]

Can someone explain the rationale for the above, and relate it to the following scenarios?

Which marriages are valid and why/why not?

1. Woman born without ovaries (or man born without testicles), and is thus infertile; the marriage will produce no offspring.

This would be noticed sometime early on and hormonal replacement would be instituted based on the potential for each. This is not that common.

1. Man unable to produce erection for any medical reason; sexual intercourse is not possible. The marriage will produce no offspring.

This is a mixed bag that usually does not show up absent underlying problems such as Diabetes, atherosclerosis, hypertension and there is always things like penile implants for impotence.

1. The woman is born without a vaginal opening. Sexual intercourse is not possible. The marriage will produce no offspring.

Assuming that there are ovaries and a uterus, something would be done surgically to aid in menstruation. There are always ways to construct a vaginal opening.

1. The woman has passed menopause (prior to marriage). The marriage will produce no offspring.

This I am not 100% sure about, however, I believe that there have been reports of women that are post-menopausal getting pregnant.

 

[PetrusRomanus]

Ok, I hear what you say. But what is the reasoning that leads to that being the standard for whether a marriage is permissible?

I’m not answering for fix here, but the first answer off the top of my head is Biology. It’s a biological fact that it takes a heterosexual union to create offspring.

Secondly, marriage was not invented by the government and the government nor the people have the power or authority to re-define it, even if they think they can. Marriage was around a lot longer than that (like Adam and Eve being the first marriage).

 

[Blue_Horizon]

Ok, I hear what you say. But what is the reasoning that leads to that being the standard for whether a marriage is permissible?

Rau are you asking “Why is the ability to engage in the marital act the standard for whether a marriage is permissable.” I am not quite sure what the difficulty is for you here?

I believe people are rightly saying that inherent bodily potential to conceive is one of the necessary requirements for Catholic marriage.

Same sex couples do not have an inherent potential to conceive.

Opposite sex couples with a variety of impediments as have been listed may never conceive - but that is because of intractable impediments that thwart the intrinisc potential.

Even inability to engage in the marital act is not an impediment to marriage.
One may have a valid marriage even if it is unconsummated - though the marriage may be later validly dissolved as actual sexual union is required to fully complete it.

.

 

[Elizium23]

Even inability to engage in the marital act is not an impediment to marriage.
One may have a valid marriage even if it is unconsummated - though the marriage may be later validly dissolved as actual sexual union is required to fully complete it…

Inability to engage in the marital act is a diriment impediment to valid marriage. An impotent man cannot marry. A woman who, for whatever reason, cannot have vaginal intercourse, cannot marry validly.

This is one reason among many why homosexuals cannot validly marry. They are incapable of completing a marital act ordered toward procreation.

 

[Blue_Horizon]

Inability to engage in the marital act is a diriment impediment to valid marriage. An impotent man cannot marry. A woman who, for whatever reason, cannot have vaginal intercourse, cannot marry validly.

This is one reason among many why homosexuals cannot validly marry. They are incapable of completing a marital act ordered toward procreation.

Yes you are more correct Elizium when you say the ability to copulate is essential for a valid marriage. (However one may validly marry if both parties so capable choose not to).

I am not sure if the comparison of this with homsexual acts is the best way to argue the disordered nature of the latter. The case of a man “fornicating” because his “wife” is frigid (ie they’re not really married) is not exactly “wrong” in the same way that homosexual liaisons are wrong.