Why is infinite regression held to be impossible?

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I guess some people might consider this reasoning “convoluted” but there really are not that many premises.

Your claim: God is actualizable. Actualize is defined as “To make a reality of” so actualizable means “capable of being made into reality.” Therefore, your claim is that it is possible to make God into a reality.

My question, therefore, is what made God real?

Possible responses:
Response|Consequence
God was not made real but is real|It is possible to be real without being made real
God was not made real and is not real|There is no God
God was made real|god is not God

Now, presumably you will chose response 1. If it is possible to become real without being made real (i.e. actualized,) then reality (or existence) does not imply actualizability and your claim:

is incorrect.
I’m jut gonna throw this out there. I believe what JDaniel meant was this:

In order for something to exist it must have act, be actual. This is pretty much just a restatement of the fact that it exists. So, in order for things to have act they must either have act potentially and have it brought into existence, or they must simply have act and so they simply exist because of what they are.

Having made this distinction it is true that you could argue for an actual infinite in one of two ways, one could either show that it is possible to bring it into existence orthat by it’s very nature it necessarily exists. I guess one must similarly argue against it.

TTC, I assume this was the clarification you were looking for as you presumed that JDaniels would choose the first of the three options. It will be a lot easier to actually get somewhere in a conversation if people stop turning it into a competition to prove someone wrong who disagrees with them. If you already knew what he would reply you could have suggested this distinction for him to see whether or not he agrees.
 
…adding numbers to an infinite quantity does not get you a larger quantity.
Conversely, subtracting items from an infinite quantity of items does not result in a smaller quantity of items, which is at the core of why time must have a beginning.
 
I’m jut gonna throw this out there. I believe what JDaniel meant was this:

In order for something to exist it must have act, be actual. This is pretty much just a restatement of the fact that it exists. So, in order for things to have act they must either have act potentially and have it brought into existence, or they must simply have act and so they simply exist because of what they are.

Having made this distinction it is true that you could argue for an actual infinite in one of two ways, one could either show that it is possible to bring it into existence orthat by it’s very nature it necessarily exists. I guess one must similarly argue against it.

TTC, I assume this was the clarification you were looking for as you presumed that JDaniels would choose the first of the three options. It will be a lot easier to actually get somewhere in a conversation if people stop turning it into a competition to prove someone wrong who disagrees with them. If you already knew what he would reply you could have suggested this distinction for him to see whether or not he agrees.
I gave him the opportunity at the beginning of the discussion:
Lets work on your terms then. I will agree for now that something that is infinite is unactualizable. That does not mean it cannot exist. You would agree that God is infinite and unactualizable, but that God exists. Therefore, I claim that an infinite timeline is likewise infinite and unactualizable, as well as existing.
 
One cannot obtain existence because one never originates. Progressive or Regressive.

Simply put, infinite regression argues for existence without beginning. One either exists with beginning or one exists as. The former is in the case of the materialistic construct, the latter is of the immaterial. They’re unique.
Indeed, we would claim that the infinite regression exists as is. If it is possible for God to exist without beginning, then it is also possible for regression to exist without beginning. What you seem to want to do is create two sets of logic, one of which applies to God, and the other to infinite regression. “Normal” logic applies to material things, but we get to waive certain complications when it comes to “immaterial” things.

Perhaps I will simplify things this way: whatever property God has that you believe allows him to exist without beginning, I claim is also possessed by the infinite regression.
 
I now argue that the “God” answer to creation is in fact a specific case of an infinite regression.
  1. God has keeps his own time, which is completely separate from ours
    a. Without a “before and after” he could not cause anything.
  2. God’s timeline is infinite.
    a. If God’s timeline were finite, God would have a beginning, but God is the “uncaused cause.”
  3. Therefore, prior to this universe being caused, there has passed an infinite amount of time.
    a. We cannot conclude how many things God has caused.
    b. It is possible for God to have caused an infinite number of things (e.g. by creating something every God-day.)
  4. Therefore, the existence of God can be considered an infinite regression.
    a. If there are a finite number of things caused by God, there is still an infinite past in God-time
    b. If there are an infinite number of things caused by God, then the situation is a true infinite regression since an infinite number of things exist.
 
I now argue that the “God” answer to creation is in fact a specific case of an infinite regression.
  1. God has keeps his own time, which is completely separate from ours
    a. Without a “before and after” he could not cause anything.
  2. God’s timeline is infinite.
    a. If God’s timeline were finite, God would have a beginning, but God is the “uncaused cause.”
  3. Therefore, prior to this universe being caused, there has passed an infinite amount of time.
    a. We cannot conclude how many things God has caused.
    b. It is possible for God to have caused an infinite number of things (e.g. by creating something every God-day.)
  4. Therefore, the existence of God can be considered an infinite regression.
    a. If there are a finite number of things caused by God, there is still an infinite past in God-time
    b. If there are an infinite number of things caused by God, then the situation is a true infinite regression since an infinite number of things exist.
Before you can use this argument you have to somehow prove that all other understandings of God are impossible. Which you will not manage to do. You clearly have an agenda and are not interested in a genuine conversation. If you were you would not have carefully tried to trap JDaniels when he didn’t pick up on the distinction you left for him o make and instead kept questioning him to make it look as though he was contradicting himself. I’m just gonna throw this out there sothat anyone interested in a genuine conversation can be aware of what’s going on.
 
Certainly, if you wish me to have a larger field to play in, then we may consider both actual infinities which are not described by mathematical abstractions and actual infinities which are. Now you have done a reasonable job arguing why your particular understanding of an actual infinity is impossible, but we have yet to eliminate the rest of the set of possible infinities that are not described by mathematical abstractions and the entire set of actual infinities which are.
TTC:

Show me one.

With regard to the rest of your question, I am sorry that I wasn’t more specific. I’ve been on these fora for so long that it’s sometimes hard to remember with whom I’ve conversed and what was said. I was under the impression that you had read an earlier post of mine wherein I spoke about the spiritual realm as the only possible realm in which an actual Infinity might exist. But, now I see that either you didn’t get a chance to read it, or ignored it. I’ll concede the former to be the case.

In another thread, Space?, the idea of two different things called space was brought up: continuous and discrete. Continuous space was said to be infinite and, therefore, God. Discrete space was said to be the space we see and science investigates, which is finite. The mathematician I was conversing with indicated that a finite thing could not grow into an infinite thing, therefore, and that, therefore, the Universe is finite - and will always be so. I agree with him. The Hubble telescope has a range that is said to have no limit. In its slightly over a million shots of various aspects of the Universe, it is unable to penetrate the sphere (surface or, edge) of opaqueness that surrounds it. This opaque edge is called the surface of last scattering. And it seems to bear out that he is correct in that view.

Now. What’s beyond this surface of last scattering that our Universe is continuously expanding into? Of course the answer to that is somewhat conjectural. But, understanding it as a space of a different order, as continuous or infinite space, answers many questions posed by scientists. There’s much more to this than can be said in this brief summary. May I suggest that you find that thread and read it?

God bless,
jd
 
Indeed, we would claim that the infinite regression exists as is. If it is possible for God to exist without beginning, then it is also possible for regression to exist without beginning. What you seem to want to do is create two sets of logic, one of which applies to God, and the other to infinite regression.
TTC:

Sorry for butting in. You want to conflate God - spiritual substance - with material substance. Of course, you are free to do so. But, the reality is, that it has been the Christian contention for many centuries, that the two are not conflatable.

In saying this, the finite universe, as discrete space, is not the same as infinite space (God), outside of the universe. Discrete space can exist within continuous space without diminishing the infinity of continuous space. Yet, discrete space - and all within it - remains finite for as long as it exists.
Perhaps I will simplify things this way: whatever property God has that you believe allows him to exist without beginning, I claim is also possessed by the infinite regression.
It has always been Christian cosmology and theology that God exists through Himself, while finite, physical beings, such as our universe at 13 - 14 billion light years of age, and seen at the explicate level, exist through something else (God). You can hypothesize what you want about the universe, multiverse, time, and infinity. It will always remain a sheer hypothetical and likely won’t get much traction. While, on the other hand, the only properly logical explanation of the existence of finite and/or aggregative structures and things, is that they each and every one, have, or had, a beginning, and that the Prime Mover is God.

Of course, from this angle matter is seen by you as practically the only physical thing. I contend that it is not. I contend that matter consists of atoms - which contain 50,000 times more continuous space than discrete particles (all of which are dimensionless), and thus, that it is space that matter (and energy) consists of. It is the infinitesimal that is coterminous with the atoms and space points of material being.

God bless,
jd
 
Before you can use this argument you have to somehow prove that all other understandings of God are impossible. Which you will not manage to do. You clearly have an agenda and are not interested in a genuine conversation. If you were you would not have carefully tried to trap JDaniels when he didn’t pick up on the distinction you left for him o make and instead kept questioning him to make it look as though he was contradicting himself. I’m just gonna throw this out there sothat anyone interested in a genuine conversation can be aware of what’s going on.
You’re right, I would have to qualify my statement to “This particular God response” rather than “all God responses.” Therefore I do. I claim that the specific conception of God described in my post is a specific case of infinite regression.

He did contradict himself, and questioning someone until such a contradiction is revealed is a well known technique in philosophy, you may have heard it called the “Socratic method.”

Whether or not someone has an agenda is irrelevant to the questions “Do you have an answer to their questions, or a response to their arguments?” Indeed, I would argue that most other people here also have an agenda, namely they desire to not have their understandings of God seriously questioned.
 
In another thread, Space?, the idea of two different things called space was brought up: continuous and discrete. Continuous space was said to be infinite and, therefore, God. Discrete space was said to be the space we see and science investigates, which is finite. The mathematician I was conversing with indicated that a finite thing could not grow into an infinite thing, therefore, and that, therefore, the Universe is finite - and will always be so. I agree with him. The Hubble telescope has a range that is said to have no limit. In its slightly over a million shots of various aspects of the Universe, it is unable to penetrate the sphere (surface or, edge) of opaqueness that surrounds it. This opaque edge is called the surface of last scattering. And it seems to bear out that he is correct in that view.
I don’t recall saying that the universe had grown infinite from a finite origin (that would imply a beginning.) I have been claiming all along that we observe a finite subset of an infinite set. There has never been a point at which the regression was finite, there was no beginning at all.
Now. What’s beyond this surface of last scattering that our Universe is continuously expanding into? Of course the answer to that is somewhat conjectural. But, understanding it as a space of a different order, as continuous or infinite space, answers many questions posed by scientists. There’s much more to this than can be said in this brief summary. May I suggest that you find that thread and read it?
I think what science says about this or that property of space is mostly irrelevant. Indeed we do not know very well what is outside the edge of our observable universe, what came before the big bang, or what will happen to our universe trillions of years from now. Unless you would like to cite science as having some empirical evidence that is able to make a positive statement about time, space, etc, then it is all conjecture, scientific or otherwise.

We must remember that we are asking the question “Why is infinite regression held to be impossible?” answering “Science suggests x” is not very satisfactory. We must remember that people were rejecting infinite regressions long before we had modern science, so what were their reasons for doing so? It would seem that an immediate and complete dismissal of infinite regression would require some clear and simple reasoning to do, but so far I have not heard it.
 
You’re right, I would have to qualify my statement to “This particular God response” rather than “all God responses.” Therefore I do. I claim that the specific conception of God described in my post is a specific case of infinite regression.

He did contradict himself, and questioning someone until such a contradiction is revealed is a well known technique in philosophy, you may have heard it called the “Socratic method.”

Whether or not someone has an agenda is irrelevant to the questions “Do you have an answer to their questions, or a response to their arguments?” Indeed, I would argue that most other people here also have an agenda, namely they desire to not have their understandings of God seriously questioned.
I’m glad you agree with me. I also think that you are not going to find any Catholic Theologian who agrees with this understanding of God that you put forward… so I’m not really sure that there will be anyone to respond to your objection about it as I find it unlikely that there are any that accept this understanding.

I am, in fact, quite familiar with the socratic method. It was used to help people realize how little they actually knew. However, when it is used to make someone contradict themselves when what they really think and mean is not necessarily contradictory I think it is a dishonest way to conduct an intellectual dialogue. Isn’t the point behind all of this to come to the truth? If so, then getting into debates about specific words used even if you know that that is not what the other person meant or intended is hardly going to help you do that. Now if the reason you’re here is simply because you want to convince people that they are wrong than this would be a very appropriate method. It is quite possible that there are other people here with their own agendas, however, as I understand it, the purpose of these forums, or any real intellectual discussion is to help people discover the truth, so I would encourage anyone with a hidden agenda to leave it behind. Having a certain opinion does not count as an agenda. Using the socratic method to get someone to contradict some particular thing that was said or implied even when not meant to and using that to discredit their position is simply pushing an agenda as opposed to having an honest intellectual discussion.
 
I’m sorry if that came across overly harsh. I love to have discussions with people of differing viewpoints, but only when they are both honestly willing to listen to what the other person really means instead of getting caught up on a particular phrase they use. It’s something that irritates me easily. I honestly do not mean to cause any offense.
 
It’s so easy to knock down the A-team, and oh so much fun! 😃

TrueCentrist’s latest :hey_bud: …
I now argue that the “God” answer to creation is in fact a specific case of an infinite regression.
  1. God has keeps his own time, which is completely separate from ours
    ____ God does not keep his own time, and he is not in our time. He is outside any time and timeless, unchanging and eternal.______________ 😃
    a. Without a “before and after” he could not cause anything.
    ___________ “when” he was alone, it was not “before” he caused anything. It was not time. It was eternity.____________:smiley:
  2. God’s timeline is infinite.
    a. If God’s timeline were finite, God would have a beginning, but God is the “uncaused cause.”
    __________God doesn’t have a timeline, as I indicated in 1 ____________:smiley:
  3. Therefore, prior to this universe being caused, there has passed an infinite amount of time.
    _____ there was no “prior” to this universe being caused____:smiley:
    a. We cannot conclude how many things God has caused.
    b. It is possible for God to have caused an infinite number of things (e.g. by creating something every God-day.)
    ____________ God could not cause an infinite number of things. A “number” is a discrete, specific, exact number. “Infinite number” is a concept that exists only in mathematics, not reality. It’s a self-contradiction and God cannot cause a self-contradiction______________:smiley:
  4. Therefore, the existence of God can be considered an infinite regression.
    a. If there are a finite number of things caused by God, there is still an infinite past in God-time
    ________ There is no God-time and no infinity___________:smiley:
    b. If there are an infinite number of things caused by God, then the situation is a true infinite regression since an infinite number of things exist.
    ________ There cannot be an infinite number of things, as explained in 3. __________
 
I don’t recall saying that the universe had grown infinite from a finite origin (that would imply a beginning.) I have been claiming all along that we observe a finite subset of an infinite set. There has never been a point at which the regression was finite, there was no beginning at all.
TTC:

Nor did I accuse you of that claim. Again, you are being argumentative.
I think what science says about this or that property of space is mostly irrelevant.
On what basis? Or, is this another naked assertion?
Indeed we do not know very well what is outside the edge of our observable universe, what came before the big bang, or what will happen to our universe trillions of years from now.
I agree with the first part of your statement. This “science,” that you are so ready to disparage, says that our universe has about 26 billion years left to wait out entropy. Of course, we won’t be here - at least in our present form - then. But, “trillions of years?”
Unless you would like to cite science as having some empirical evidence that is able to make a positive statement about time, space, etc, then it is all conjecture, scientific or otherwise.
Entropy is mere conjecture then?
We must remember that we are asking the question “Why is infinite regression held to be impossible?” answering “Science suggests x” is not very satisfactory.
Especially, I guess, if one does not like the answer. 🤷
We must remember that people were rejecting infinite regressions long before we had modern science, so what were their reasons for doing so? It would seem that an immediate and complete dismissal of infinite regression would require some clear and simple reasoning to do, but so far I have not heard it.
Again, my apologies. Conversing with many on these fora can, and does, give rise to confusions as to what others have said and what one has said to others. I believe that an actual infinite regression is impossible. However, I’m not sure there’s a simple proof for the impossibility of a purely mathematical infinite regression. And, that’s what it would be.

I believe that an infinite regression can be postulated in sheer math. I do not believe it can be successfully postulated of an aggregate of physical, or temporal, exigencies. Physical exigencies are separate things with boundaries. Things consist of either other things, or pieces of a first thing. And temporal exigencies require separation that would otherwise result in contradictions. I believe that there is a smallest actuality that, for all intents and purposes, cannot be sub-divided any further and remain dimensional. ‘Points’ may be said to exist, but may (beyond) equally be said not to exist. Any proposition based on “points” would be irrelevant if they are involved solely for the purpose of asserting an actual infinity.

But, that’s not the kind of infinite regression that you were talking about. The only kind of infinite regression you could be talking about is an infinite regression of time. Nothing else will satisfy. Time is an essentially subordinated series of “nows,” or “seconds,” or “Planck lengths,” each one dependent upon the previous one as any change is dependent upon a previous state. Besides, “time” has a reality that is considerably different than the reality of beings.

St. Thomas says, in the Summa Theologiae, “This, however, is impossible, since every kind of multitude must belong to a species of multitude. Now the species of multitude are to be reckoned by the species of numbers. But no species of number is infinite, for every number is multitude measured by one.” In other words, in either direction, number is multitude measured by one. In any progression, one more may always be added (or, two, or three, etc.) Likewise, in any regression, number is multitude measured by one. So, since one may be added to any regression such that no actual number is ever achieved, an infinite regression can never be achieved either. An actualized infinite regression can only be potentially (a tending toward) infinite.

However, I am interested in your idea of God as an Infinite Regression. Care to elaborate? Also, if you have a differing idea of an actual infinity, would care to elaborate on that, too? And, I am interested in your idea of a “finite set” within an “infinite set.”

God bless,
jd
 
I agree with the first part of your statement. This “science,” that you are so ready to disparage, says that our universe has about 26 billion years left to wait out entropy. Of course, we won’t be here - at least in our present form - then. But, “trillions of years?”
Entropy is mere conjecture then?
Especially, I guess, if one does not like the answer. 🤷
Entropy is a statistical phenomenon, there is a small chance that a system will deviate from the second law of thermodynamics. The fluctuation theorem allows us to calculate the exact probability. In other words, there is always a non-zero probability of a spontaneous ordering event. On ordinary time scales and dimensions, this is practically impossible, but when we are considering the time to the heat death (on the order of 10^1000 years) things that are incredibly unlikely become plausible. Therefore, it may be inevitable that before the heat death, there will be a large scale spontaneous ordering event, and another universe formed. There are also other ways to avoid a heat death, such as sufficiently fast inflation (this theory, btw, claims that there would be an infinite regression.)

I am not disallowing science because it suggests finitude, but rather because it is all speculation. There are scientific hypothesis that would allow for infinite regressions, and hypothesis that imply finitude. Unless you have more conclusive evidence, it is still just speculation.
 
Indeed, we would claim that the infinite regression exists as is. If it is possible for God to exist without beginning, then it is also possible for regression to exist without beginning. What you seem to want to do is create two sets of logic, one of which applies to God, and the other to infinite regression. “Normal” logic applies to material things, but we get to waive certain complications when it comes to “immaterial” things.

Perhaps I will simplify things this way: whatever property God has that you believe allows him to exist without beginning, I claim is also possessed by the infinite regression.
No.

Infinite Regression proposes existence through a stream of regressions that cannot come to be.

Infinite Regression goes as follows:

------------------------------------------- A.

A cannot be reachable, because due to the infinite progression that has to be endured, the end can never be reached. Infinite Regression, like Infinite Progression proposes a change. God as infinite cannot Change. No uncaused cause can undergo a change, it’s an unmoved mover. So your claim of infinite regression being on par to God’s just as existence cannot be made.

Therefore, God’s existence is absolute, just as.

Either something** is**, or is not.

God Bless,

Christopher.
 
I now argue that the “God” answer to creation is in fact a specific case of an infinite regression.
  1. God has keeps his own time, which is completely separate from ours
    a. Without a “before and after” he could not cause anything.
Why must God keep his own time? Really, why must God have time?
  1. God’s timeline is infinite.
    a. If God’s timeline were finite, God would have a beginning, but God is the “uncaused cause.”
Time is meaningless outside of this space-time continuum. To say that God’s timeline is infinite is an absurdity because of this.
  1. Therefore, prior to this universe being caused, there has passed an infinite amount of time.
    a. We cannot conclude how many things God has caused.
    b. It is possible for God to have caused an infinite number of things (e.g. by creating something every God-day.)
This is invalid due to the objection of #2, time outside of this space-time continuum is meaningless. Further, point b is complete conjecture and should not be included in any sort of proof.
  1. Therefore, the existence of God can be considered an infinite regression.
    a. If there are a finite number of things caused by God, there is still an infinite past in God-time
    b. If there are an infinite number of things caused by God, then the situation is a true infinite regression since an infinite number of things exist.
This is extrapolating on conjecture. You have zero proof that God created anything outside of this space-time continuum. Without that proof, this proof falls apart completely.
 
TrueCentrist pulls things out of thin air:
Entropy is a statistical phenomenon, there is a small chance that a system will deviate from the second law of thermodynamics. The fluctuation theorem allows us to calculate the exact probability. In other words, there is always a non-zero probability of a spontaneous ordering event. On ordinary time scales and dimensions, this is practically impossible, but when we are considering the time to the heat death (on the order of 10^1000 years) things that are incredibly unlikely become plausible. Therefore, it may be inevitable that before the heat death, there will be a large scale spontaneous ordering event, and another universe formed.
You only have to read Scientific American to know this is hogwash.

The galaxies are spreading out at ever increasing speed. There is no way to reverse this.
Ultimately, some trillions of trillions of years from now, the galaxies will be so dispersed, there will be no communication between them, not even by light, As the nuclear fuel of stars burns out and all residual heat disapates into deep space, everthing will cool down to zero degrees. Entropy will have increased to a maximum. There is no process to bring everything back together again which would be “reversing entropy”.

Also,
Entropy is a statistical phenomenon :mad:
Entropy is not statistical phenomenon. It goes in one direction.
With three college degrees in the sciences, I could write thousands of words on this point, but never mind.
 
…]What you seem to want to do is create two sets of logic, one of which applies to God, and the other to infinite regression. “Normal” logic applies to material things, but we get to waive certain complications when it comes to “immaterial” things.

Perhaps I will simplify things this way: whatever property God has that you believe allows him to exist without beginning, I claim is also possessed by the infinite regression.
Possibly related (possibly not). The panentheistic concepts of God see God and the universe as being synonymous and all of us from person to animal to mineral are all part of that God.
 
Entropy is not statistical phenomenon. It goes in one direction.
With three college degrees in the sciences, I could write thousands of words on this point, but never mind.
It is statistical:
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Entropy_%28statistical_thermodynamics%29
There is a non-zero probability that it can be violated:
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fluctuation_theorem
The second law has been observed to be violated on small scales (from Scientific American):
scientificamerican.com/article.cfm?id=second-law-of-thermodynam
 
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