Why is intercourse during pregnacy permissible

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Hi.

Question is above. Somebody lay this out succinctly for me to explain.
 
Why would it not be permissible? The act of marital intercourse between husband and wife is always permissible as long as no artificial chemical or mechanical contraception is used.
 
Because marriage grants the exclusive right to acts which are of their nature procreative, and the existing pregnancy does not change the nature of the act.
 
TK421 said:
Hi.

Question is above. Somebody lay this out succinctly for me to explain.
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Why wouldn’t it be, presuming the two people in question are married to each other.

Perhaps you can lay out why you think it would not be permissible?
 
By it’s nature, the act is procreative.
The results are different matter.

If it were as you fear, every time you had sex and did not achieve pregnancy you would be guilty of something.

The act has a natural God-given form, *ordered to *procreation.
 
clem456 said:
If it were as you fear, every time you had sex and did not achieve pregnancy you would be guilty of something.
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No, because I said you have a right to acts which are, by their nature, procreative. Not achieving pregnancy does not change the nature of the act. If you engage in the marital act, even knowing you cannot possibly procreate, you are still acting within your rights because the act itself is still, by its nature, procrative.
 
LordHaveMercy said:
No, because I said you have a right to acts which are, by their nature, procreative. Not achieving pregnancy does not change the nature of the act. If you engage in the marital act, even knowing you cannot possibly procreate, you are still acting within your rights because the act itself is still, by its nature, procrative.
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That’s exactly the point I was making. I’m sorry I did not express it well.

oh, I see, I responded to the wrong post. I meant to quote the op and grabbed you instead.
 
clem456 said:
That’s exactly the point I was making. I’m sorry I did not express it well.

oh, I see, I responded to the wrong post. I meant to quote the op and grabbed you instead.
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:hug1:
 
Because sexual relations between married people are both procreative AND unitive. Not just procreative. The relations are meant to strengthen the bond between husband and wife and create a family bond.

We should not downplay the unitive part–the Church doesn’t and knows it is important to a marriage.
 
CB_Catholic said:
We should not downplay the unitive part–the Church doesn’t and knows it is important to a marriage.
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I agree we should not downplay the unitive part, as it is a beautiful element of the married state. But, the unitive part is the secondary purpose, the primary purpose is procreation. We must uphold and respect the unitive part as the secondary purpose of the marital act.
 
TK421 said:
Hi.

Question is above. Somebody lay this out succinctly for me to explain.
Click to expand...
Marital relations is permissible during pregnancy, even though procreation cannot result, because the knowingly chosen act is still ordered toward its proper good moral objects: the marital, unitive, and procreative meanings. For it is not the attainment of the object that makes the act inherently good or evil, but the ordering of the chosen act toward that good or evil end.

Similarly, an elderly couple can still have marital relations, though they are very unlikely to conceive, because the act has its proper ordering (telios) toward its proper end. The choice of a morally-ordered act is licit, even if the good end which gives the act its good order is not attained.

Conversely, a married couple who use contraception sin gravely, even if by chance they conceive a child (due to failure of the contraception). For they have knowingly chosen an inherently disordered act. Their chosen act failed to attain its evil object of thwarting procreation. But they sinned by that choice.
 
Ron_Conte said:
Marital relations is permissible during pregnancy, even though procreation cannot result, because the knowingly chosen act is still ordered toward its proper good moral objects: the marital, unitive, and procreative meanings. For it is not the attainment of the object that makes the act inherently good or evil, but the ordering of the chosen act toward that good or evil end.

Similarly, an elderly couple can still have marital relations, though they are very unlikely to conceive, because the act has its proper ordering (telios) toward its proper end. The choice of a morally-ordered act is licit, even if the good end which gives the act its good order is not attained.

Conversely, a married couple who use contraception sin gravely, even if by chance they conceive a child (due to failure of the contraception). For they have knowingly chosen an inherently disordered act. Their chosen act failed to attain its evil object of thwarting procreation. But they sinned by that choice.
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Ty.
 
It’s a serious question. What promoted this question, what makes you think it is not permissible?
 
The way I understand this, there are different ends of marital sexual intercourse. The primary end is having children. But there are other ends too, such as expressing the unity of a husband wife. --a similar situations would involve sex when the wife was too old to have a child. It is still good for a husband wife to express their unity even if the wife is too old to have a child.
 
Fertility or infertility has nothing to do with the licitness of the marital act. The act itself is ordered to procreation by its nature, whether fertility is present or not. After all, a woman is only fertile during a particular period each month, but the marital act between husband and wife is perfectly licit regardless, at any time of the month, and before or after menopause.
 
LordHaveMercy said:
I agree we should not downplay the unitive part, as it is a beautiful element of the married state. But, the unitive part is the secondary purpose, the primary purpose is procreation. We must uphold and respect the unitive part as the secondary purpose of the marital act.
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When a woman is pregnant she and her husband need to be very closely united. The bond between a mother and a father is of the utmost importance to the unborn child. This is not only a moral and religious concept it is also necessary in the world of nature. The human child needs the care and love by his or her father and mother and needs the security of the love between them.
 
The thread directly above this one is titled “Driving and Texting,” so when I saw this one I thought for a moment it was entitled “Why is texting during intercourse permissible.”

Sadly I don’t think any of the ancient Fathers have weighed in on that.
 
Bran_Stark said:
The thread directly above this one is titled “Driving and Texting,” so when I saw this one I thought for a moment it was entitled “Why is texting during intercourse permissible.”

Sadly I don’t think any of the ancient Fathers have weighed in on that.
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Texting can be ruinous.
Some activities surely require the attention of both hands.
 
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