T
TimothyH
Guest
Probably been asked before so accept my apologies for not being able to find it via search.
Abram had Ishmael by his wife Sarai’s maidservant Hagar. This happened, I presume, before God changed thier names and prior to the birth of Isaac by his wife.
Why then does the author of Genesis 22:2 call Isaac Abraham’s “Only” son?
This came up in the context of Romans 4. My position is that Abraham’s faith was that God could raise the dead, as Paul seems to state in Romans 4. This makes sense only if God promised to make Abraham’s descendants as numerous as the sands in the sea and then commanded Abraham to kill his “Only” son.This does not make sense if Abraham had another son such as Ismael.
So what gives on the “Only son” thing? How can Isaac be Abraham’s “Only” son?
Thanks!
-Tim-
Abram had Ishmael by his wife Sarai’s maidservant Hagar. This happened, I presume, before God changed thier names and prior to the birth of Isaac by his wife.
Why then does the author of Genesis 22:2 call Isaac Abraham’s “Only” son?
This came up in the context of Romans 4. My position is that Abraham’s faith was that God could raise the dead, as Paul seems to state in Romans 4. This makes sense only if God promised to make Abraham’s descendants as numerous as the sands in the sea and then commanded Abraham to kill his “Only” son.This does not make sense if Abraham had another son such as Ismael.
So what gives on the “Only son” thing? How can Isaac be Abraham’s “Only” son?
Thanks!
-Tim-