F
fakename
Guest
I’m just asking because I know that it already is wrong.
Now, if the human will is not frequently easily overcome by fear from coercion, then we can safely say that coercion wouldn’t make a person’s will unfree and so some coercion is well used in getting people to freely convert.
so why does this argument not fly?
Now, if the human will is not frequently easily overcome by fear from coercion, then we can safely say that coercion wouldn’t make a person’s will unfree and so some coercion is well used in getting people to freely convert.
so why does this argument not fly?