A
AskSeekKnock
Guest
I understand and respect the teaching that contraception interferes with God’s plan, and that to partake in his gift of sexuality without simultaneous openness to the creation of new life is to take only half of what God intended for us.
I’m having a hard time understanding, however, why it is that natural family planning (NFP) is ok when it is, in fact, a method of contraception. Modern symptothermal fertility awareness, complete with basal body temperature, cervical monitoring, luteinizing hormone assays, etc. make NFP more effective than condoms when used correctly. So there is less “openness” to new life, statistically speaking, with NFP and yet NFP is acceptable while condoms are not.
In a similar vein, intercourse during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle can never result in pregnancy, and an NFP couple knows this well. Do they then sin having intercourse then, since there is no openness to new life at that time? What about intercourse when a woman is already pregnant - no chance for another pregnancy then, so no openness to creation there either. And intercourse after menopause - is that sinful?
I’m having a hard time understanding, however, why it is that natural family planning (NFP) is ok when it is, in fact, a method of contraception. Modern symptothermal fertility awareness, complete with basal body temperature, cervical monitoring, luteinizing hormone assays, etc. make NFP more effective than condoms when used correctly. So there is less “openness” to new life, statistically speaking, with NFP and yet NFP is acceptable while condoms are not.
In a similar vein, intercourse during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle can never result in pregnancy, and an NFP couple knows this well. Do they then sin having intercourse then, since there is no openness to new life at that time? What about intercourse when a woman is already pregnant - no chance for another pregnancy then, so no openness to creation there either. And intercourse after menopause - is that sinful?