Why is "Natural Family Planning" ok when other contraceptive methods are not?

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St Francis (by the way, if everything you hear about him is true, he was a great guy),
Was?..

And I haven’t heard anything about him, so I don’t know. I can see now that the difficulties we had were due more to differing expectations and use of language.
I was glad to read your last post. I had decided to give up on this thread, because it seemed that it had gotten to the point of pure argumentation. But, now I am not sure about.
I don’t want to quote anything specific, but I am looking for a confirmation of your origin of thought, so can you tell me if this is what you are saying:
  1. Your reasoning is more than just “The Church says so.” Your own personal reasoning is more like, “I can follow the logic of the Church’s reasoning, even if I can’t explain it to you in non-Catholic terms”
  1. You can follow the Church’s reasoning, and it makes sense to you, because as a Catholic, you have the same world view as the Church does, in terms of respect between spouses, the need for self-control, and the general idea that it is not safe to blindly modify what God has made.
I would agree with the first statement, yes. The second one would include *more *than what you have written, but would also include what you have written, so generally, yes.
  1. Your general thought is that (for the most part) people who use ABC or defend the use of ABC do so because they resist the idea of self-control. That is, they simply want to feel good (now!!!), and that idea is foreign to Catholic thought.
I would not *exactly *agree with this statement. All too many people in this society just see the use of abc as the normal and responsible thing to do, and I accept that they are sincere in thinking that way, while acknowledging that it comes from a differing view of the world.
  1. Those who think that way, and then demand non-moral logic in the argument, are beginning from (that’s their bias) a secular point of view. Of course, they can’t understand how the Church thinks, and they can’t understand how a Catholic thinks.
I myself would not have brought up the idea of bias, because 1. it is a somewhat loaded term (at the same time, I do not fault PT for bringing it up–it’s not *that *loaded), and 2. it’s a relative term–it tends to apply to deviation from some particular way of thinking.
If all that is correct, I respect your points. It is not fair for anyone to try to take any of that away from you.
Then, there is one more point, which I don’t understand, and I maybe need another thread for it (however, it is so emotional I am not sure we would get very far). And, I am thinking about the idea that secular thought is “anti-Catholic.” Now, this is my question about that, and it is a deep question, one that requires self-examination.
The question is: What does “anti-Catholic” mean? As a way of explanation, I was raised in a Catholic family, and in a parochial elem school. I remember very well being left with the impression that every thing in our culture that goes against Catholic teaching was “anti-Catholic” by which was meant “intentionally put there to hinder, bother, disturb, or destroy the Church.” Please note the word ‘intentionally.’ I have come the point in life where I honestly feel that the culture doesn’t care what the Church thinks, doesn’t make determinations based on what will happen to the Church. That goes for faith in general as well. The culture doesn’t seem to care what any person of faith thinks. I believe that the culture does not ‘intentionally’ do anything to bother people of faith. Rather, I have come to the conclusion that the culture is simply people following the base instincts of human nature.
I can totally see what you are saying here. For *me, *I do not call some events or actions anti-Catholic because I agree with you that most things which happen which go against Catholic teaching are not done with the specific idea of going against the Church.

However, there is a lot of nuance to the term, so it can be very tricky. For example, because Catholics see the Church as the Body of Christ, and Catholic teaching as those very true Truths which God has revealed to us, the term is sometimes used more broadly than non-Catholics would use it. Another meaning is “contrary to Catholic thinking,” and this would not necessarily imply that the proposer of an idea contrary to Catholic thinking is himself either anti-Catholic or being anti-Catholic.

However, Catholics have a long history and memory as well, and they most certainly understand that there have been points when ideas or actions were proposed specifically to go against the Catholic Church. I do not go along with the ideas that some Catholics have about certain conspiracy theories (altho I do admit that there might be something to the whole Masonic thing but I have not seen sufficient evidence to come anywhere close to believing it). I think that, like Protestantism, there are those who have been raised with certain ideas and do not consider the Church as the original proponents of the ideas did.
So, again,
Does ‘anti-Catholic’ mean ‘intentionally set up to hinder the Church and its people.’
Or, does it mean ‘not intentionally, but along the way in opposition to the Church and its people, because faithful people are trying to walk a different way?’
Thank you for considering this.
And, thank you for this morning’s (name removed by moderator)ut into the thread.
I hope what I have written helps, and if you want to discuss it further, I would be happy to cooperate in starting a new thread, since this *is *a much different topic 🙂 What we could do would be to hit edit on our own posts and paste into the New Thread text (or reply) box(es), as needed.
 
St Francis (In my last post I was referring that guy from Assisi - although I am sure you are great guy as well. And, my grandfather was named for him…:))

I am going to post another thread about the use of the expression “anti-Catholic.”

I think I am finished here. It is not really a topic that applies in my life - but the idea is interesting to me in a way. I mean the general idea of “is it possible for a non-Catholic to understand the ‘logic’ of the Church in some of what it has decreed?” And, the other question, “is it possible for Catholics to explain the logic in a way that others can understand?” And, for this paragraph, I write that with no expectation - none at all. Like PT has been saying here, “If the answer is simply faith, that is great. No problem.” Further, “if the answer is 'a certain worldview of with faith is the beginning, and the logic follows from there, that is also fine with me. I am simply wondering.”

So, the problem is, I don’t know which forum to place the question in. I may try apologetics.

Thanks,

Minny
 
XinMinny et al

We received the concept of “nature” from Aristotle as: “Nature is a source or cause of being moved and of being at rest in that to which it belongs primarily in virtue of itself and not in virtue of a concomitant attribute.” From this the Scholastic definition: “the nature of a thing is its essence considered as a principle of operation.”

It is helpful to understand that the concept of “person” is unknown before the Judeo-Christian lineage: Plato and Aristotle dealt only with statisms, and the individual has no significance in Stoic and Hindu thought – despite the awareness of some kind of human spirituality and immortality.

Man is capable by his own activity of acquiring what is lacking and developing what is already possessed to fulfill his nature. So man can know his incompleteness; he can see what he is now and discover the direction of fulfillment by scrutiny of his own nature in body, mind and spirit – to achieve himself fully. As a free agent, he has an obligation to achieve himself fully, and this bond of obligation is the natural law. All that is knowable about man through psychology, history or any of the sciences is relevant to the natural law, is part of the natural law. The natural law is outside of man’s control because created by God in man’s nature.
[See Fr Paul M Quay, S.J., in* Why Humanae Vitae Was Right, Ignatius 1993, p 21-4]

That HV IS right, is evident in the fact that “The ongoing global decline in human birthrates is the single most powerful force affecting the fate of nations and the future of society in the 21st century,” says demographer Philip Longman. The practices of contraception and abortion are the nemeses, out of control when reasoning is faulty.

There is a comparable connection between the fact that contraception is against the natural law, as is any other wrong action: stealing is; framing someone is; oppressing people is. The institution of property has the law of nature as its corollary — a law of morality which forbids stealing. The general principle being that good is to be pursued and evil avoided. But the idea of rupturing the bond between the uniting and procreative aspects of the marital act in contraception has opened the door also to other grave inhuman sexual perversions as well.
 
Since Adam and Eve, don’t we “know” too much? Now we “know” about contraception.
 
Coder
Since Adam and Eve, don’t we “know” too much?
We have intellects in order to get to know – to reason as part of our human nature.

John Finnis writes: “for Aquinas, the way to discover what is morally right (virtue) and wrong (vice) is to ask, not what is in accordance with human nature, but what is reasonable.” So, then, human good is in accord with reason and human evil lies outside the order of reasonableness: “So human virtue, which makes good both the human person and his work, is in accordance with human nature just in so far as it is in accordance with reason; and vice is contrary to human nature just in so far as it is contrary to the order of reasonableness.” (Aquinas, Summa, I-II, qu. 71, art. 2, resp.).

“To ascertain the reasonableness of something, one must examine cause-and-effect relationships, a process that calls for scientific research and study.”
[See *Christians For Freedom, Chafuen, Ignatius 1996, p 29-30].
 
"…is to ask, not what is in accordance with human nature, but what is reasonable.”
Before Adam and Eve ate of the tree of knowledge of good and evil did they have to think about this? That is my point. The O.P. is asking what is wrong with contraception compared to NFP, yet I propose that we even “know” about the evil of contraception because our parents ate of the tree of knowledge of good and evil. Before the fall, Adam and Eve were properly ordered to each other according to the way they were created. So now, we must accept the gift of faith to trust Our Father and follow His way even if our “knowledge” exposes us to evil options. In this case the “knowledge” is about contraception. I propose that is related to the “knowledge” of good and evil from eating of the fruit of the tree.
 
So ignorance would be bliss?:confused:
If the human race can reach a point of innocence where people no longer even know about contraception because they only want to do the will of Our Father, then I think that would be good.
 
Yes, with free-will, Adam caused the disorder, through pride, with which we are left – Original Sin.

Christ established His Church so that mankind could know God’s Will, that’s why Catholics offer His truths. All have the obligation to seek truth and to follow their consciences.

Since the natural law is part of our human nature as is our intellect and free-will we are obligated to use our reason to seek and follow it through our consciences.
 
i agree with askseekknock, it pretty much functions as contraception, no matter what legalistic way people try to defend it.

eveyone is saying that the oppurtunity for procreation is still there, but by deliberately having sex during an infertile time in the cycle you in effect do nothing more than use natural contraception, and procreation is totally thrown aside. a possibility for procreation means that there is a possibility a child will be conceived, but when you have sex during an infertile time there is no possibility for a new life. sounds like contraception to me
I agree! No one, NO ONE I’ve ever met or talked to has answered this question. These answers are saying that NFP is not an action to render a marital act sterile, but it IS because you have the knowledge that you are sterile/infertile at that moment in time. This is PLAGUING me and I cannot find a sufficient answer!
 
amyjo10
You haven’t read post # 30, in Natural vs Artifical contraception

Simple: As God has created the woman with fertile and infertile periods without commanding the use only of the fertile periods, it is obvious that the wise and moral use of the infertile periods, for grave reasons, as His Church teaches, is legitimate. To use the infertile periods only or without serious reasons would be thwarting the purpose of procreation, obviously.

It’s not rocket science.
 
Dear brothers and sisters in Christ, first of all blessed Good Friday to everyone here. I hope that this tread is still actively going on?

I was actually wanted to clarify to my friend about the consequences of premarital sex towards nations last night. And my simple answer to this was sexual diseases will be mushrooming and definitely it will produce sick and unhealthy nations. But the way he replied me somehow giving me a bomb. He was telling me that, ’only Catholics yes because the church is prohibited her followers to use condom (contraceptive)'. It means here that only Catholics will get the sexual diseases and chances are high to them as well. Does it make any sense to you?

To me this is real nonsense and he always has prejudiced and misconception towards the Catholic faith. I just want to see how would you response to this? I don’t have to argue with him this matter since he always think that he is God. I think he shall go in-depth instead of surface reading about Catholic teachings. Silent is POWER 😉

I am looking advance to this response. Thank you.
 
Dear brothers and sisters in Christ, first of all blessed Good Friday to everyone here. I hope that this tread is still actively going on?

I was actually wanted to clarify to my friend about the consequences of premarital sex towards nations last night. And my simple answer to this was sexual diseases will be mushrooming and definitely it will produce sick and unhealthy nations. But the way he replied me somehow giving me a bomb. He was telling me that, ’only Catholics yes because the church is prohibited her followers to use condom (contraceptive)'. It means here that only Catholics will get the sexual diseases and chances are high to them as well. Does it make any sense to you?

To me this is real nonsense and he always has prejudiced and misconception towards the Catholic faith. I just want to see how would you response to this? I don’t have to argue with him this matter since he always think that he is God. I think he shall go in-depth instead of surface reading about Catholic teachings. Silent is POWER 😉

I am looking advance to this response. Thank you.
If one is chaste, one avoids disease, and no condoms are required.
 
Christ established His Church so that mankind could know God’s Will, that’s why Catholics offer His truths. All have the obligation to seek truth and to follow their consciences.

Since the natural law is part of our human nature as is our intellect and free-will we are obligated to use our reason to seek and follow it through our consciences.
If the natural law is “part of our human nature”, why do we have to “use our reason to seek” it?
Can you prove there is such a thing as natural law?
 
If the natural law is “part of our human nature”, why do we have to “use our reason to seek” it?
It is in our nature to discover the truth. We are not born with any truth. Reason and faith are the complementary means of acquiring truth.
Can you prove there is such a thing as natural law?
Not to you.
 
It is in our nature to discover the truth. We are not born with any truth. Reason and faith are the complementary means of acquiring truth
So it’s NOT part of our nature?
Reason and faith lead us to natural law do they?
Not to you.
So that’s a NO. If you can’t prove that there is such a thing as natural law, what makes you believe that there is such a thing? It seems that contrary to what you’ve said, actually the existence of natural law is a matter of faith.
 
Can you prove the existence of the Platonic forms? Can you prove prime matter? Can you prove the pure intuitions of space and time? Can you prove that numbers exist? Can you prove that even things in themselves exist?

If you can offer “proof” for any of these things, my friend, I would love to have you over for dinner.

Asking for “proof,” in scientific terms, is in many ways unwarranted in philosophical discourse. Philosophy underlies science. It’s more fundamental than science. Philosophy is the science of things we take for granted. “What is causation?” “What is function?” “What does it mean 'to be.”? We use these theories to prove the somewhat provable empirics, but these themselves are not subject to laboratory testing.

Instead, we use reason, logic, consistency, and intuition, taking the existence of these things (perhaps) for granted. So instead, it might be better to ask, “can you give me the reasons?” or to point to some reasoned problem with the doctrine in its application, some inconsistency, or otherwise.

Finally, of course it is our nature to seek truth! You need to know, after all, what “good” means in order to live the good life. 🙂
 
I wasn’t meaning “prove” in the scientific sense, but the philosophical sense - poor choice of words possibly.
We don’t need to prove numbers exist, but we do need to at least put forward formal arguments that there is such a thing as natural law. IMO. I don’t think we can take the existence of natural law for granted. So yes, some reasons why david (or anything) believes that natural law exists would be good.
 
I wasn’t meaning “prove” in the scientific sense, but the philosophical sense - poor choice of words possibly.
We don’t need to prove numbers exist, but we do need to at least put forward formal arguments that there is such a thing as natural law. IMO. I don’t think we can take the existence of natural law for granted. So yes, some reasons why david (or anything) believes that natural law exists would be good.
Thanks. 🙂 I get a little defensive when people demand “proof,” since some of the most eloquent and important theories are well-defended, but cannot be proved. The most fundamental notions are also much more difficult to prove, since we tend to build from first principles, and there are less “tools” in the philosophical arsenal, so to speak. (I mean really, in what way to numbers exist? :))
 
So it’s NOT part of our nature?
What isn’t part of our nature?
Reason and faith lead us to natural law do they?
They can. There is no guarantee, however.
So that’s a NO.
That’s correct, but only in your case. Others would not be as inflexible.
If you can’t prove that there is such a thing as natural law, what makes you believe that there is such a thing?
I don’t need proof, reasonable evidence is sufficient.
It seems that contrary to what you’ve said, actually the existence of natural law is a matter of faith.
If it was only a matter of faith, would it be “natural”?
 
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