C
cmudd
Guest
Could, then, any deliberate act of abstinence be considered unnatural? I was under the impression that you were making an argument from a “natural law” perspective. Or is your contention that any act that deliberately seperates the procreative and unitive aspect of sex is unnatural for men?Not exactly. My assertion would only presuppose that a person couldn’t deliberately attempt to exclude nature. Living a normal Christian marriage of taking the fertile and infertile days as they come could hardly be called a deliberate intention and act designed to preclude having relations when the woman is fertile. Sometimes as an exceptional result of human life the conjugal act wouldn’t be consummated when the woman is fertile. I see this as no different than the woman’s fertile time not used by the man because he positioned himself in the wrong part of the bed. The lack of realization of God’s plan in both these cases wouldn’t be “contraception” because no deliberate intention and action was behind the lack of realization. It would simply be an unintended part of human life.
This is very true. However, you cannot use these words to justify the deliberate separation of the unitive and procreative ends of the conjugal act. To do so is to accept contraception, which does this very thing when it posits that union can trump procreation instead of working alongside it.
God bless,
Adam
If this is the case, then we can say that although we do not desire children, the methods employed by NFP do not seperate the procreative from the unitive if the unaltered act is still open to the transmissionof life… as is the case with NFP.
Would you argue that one must desire children with every conjugal act? In the case when one engaged in the sexual act, but did not want children, would he/she be committing objective sin?