I
inthedark
Guest
I understand presumption in the favor of the marriage. But I don’t understand how any subsequent effort on the part of one or both of the spouses affects what conditions were or were not present at the time that marriage was attempted. Why cannot a person get a ruling on the truth of his or situation without potentially exhausting her/himself (particularly if s/he has been making an unreciprocated good-faith effort to make things work for years, and/or if there has been unrelenting abuse)?
I also don’t understand how “doing everything one can to make things work” before discovering there is “no hope” and then divorcing is a process that makes either of the partners more open to subsequently marrying (for the first time). Why would an annulment suddenly create hope where there was none before? (Sorry if this sounds like an absurd rationale on its face, not worthy of debunking; it was offered to me by a so-called expert on the subject.) Also, how could one ever prove that there was “no hope” of making things work? There would have to be a known, finite set of possible actions one could take, and then one could demonstrate that one had taken those actions, and therefore no further action could be taken. But what are the members of this finite set?
To me, for someone to try to mount a theological defense for requiring civil divorce before annulment, when many countries grant annulments civil effect (making a subsequent civil divorce unnecessary), is like trying to find a theological justification for why kids shouldn’t be confirmed before adolescence, when for centuries the Church confirmed children at the age of reason. It would seem more honest to simply say, as Ed Peters has said, “the Church doesn’t want to get sued in civil court by anyone for alienation of affection” (i.e., “Hey, the Church told my husband he’s not married to me,” says angry uncooperative respondent to the petition; “The hell he’s not,” says the US, which doesn’t grant civil effect to Church annulments).
Would appreciate any deeper insight into the matter, however.
I also don’t understand how “doing everything one can to make things work” before discovering there is “no hope” and then divorcing is a process that makes either of the partners more open to subsequently marrying (for the first time). Why would an annulment suddenly create hope where there was none before? (Sorry if this sounds like an absurd rationale on its face, not worthy of debunking; it was offered to me by a so-called expert on the subject.) Also, how could one ever prove that there was “no hope” of making things work? There would have to be a known, finite set of possible actions one could take, and then one could demonstrate that one had taken those actions, and therefore no further action could be taken. But what are the members of this finite set?
To me, for someone to try to mount a theological defense for requiring civil divorce before annulment, when many countries grant annulments civil effect (making a subsequent civil divorce unnecessary), is like trying to find a theological justification for why kids shouldn’t be confirmed before adolescence, when for centuries the Church confirmed children at the age of reason. It would seem more honest to simply say, as Ed Peters has said, “the Church doesn’t want to get sued in civil court by anyone for alienation of affection” (i.e., “Hey, the Church told my husband he’s not married to me,” says angry uncooperative respondent to the petition; “The hell he’s not,” says the US, which doesn’t grant civil effect to Church annulments).
Would appreciate any deeper insight into the matter, however.
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