So you are saying the word Cephas or Peter was actually the title of “head” of the church?
Is that what we find where Christ is called the head of the church, the body, in Ephesians 4:15; 5:23 and Colossians 1:18; 2:10; 2:19?
Cephas is a Hebrew/Aramaic term. Kephale is a Greek term. Certainly kephale means head. Does Cephas mean head in the Hebrew/Aramaic? Paul and all Christians in the NT recognized Kephas as the head of the church and the voice and presence of Christ in their midst? If so, they would have deferred to him in everything just as they did Christ himself. They would have sought out the teaching, blessing, and approval of Kephas above all others.
The word is
kepha - not
kephale.
Kepha and
Cephas are the same words.
In Paul’s epistles—four times in Galatians and four times in 1 Corinthians—we have the Aramaic form of Simon’s new name preserved for us. In our English Bibles it comes out as
Cephas. That isn’t Greek. That’s a transliteration of the Aramaic word
Kepha (rendered as
Kephas in its Hellenistic form).
And what does
Kepha mean? It means a rock, the same as
petra. (It doesn’t mean a little stone or a pebble. What Jesus said to Simon in Matthew 16:18 was this: ‘You are
Kepha, and on this
kepha I will build my Church.’
However, I suspect you actually know all this. If not, I encourage you to read the following slowly and carefully:
Petros** and
Petra– Much Ado About Nothing**
Opponents of the Catholic interpretation of Matthew 16:18 sometimes argue that in the Greek text the name of the apostle is
Petros, while “rock” is rendered as
petra. They claim that the former refers to a small stone, while the latter refers to a massive rock; so, if Peter was meant to be the massive rock, why isn’t his name
Petra?
Note that Christ did not speak to the disciples in Greek. He spoke Aramaic, the common language of Palestine at that time. In that language the word for rock is
kepha, which is what Jesus called him in everyday speech (note that in John 1:42 he was told, “You will be called Cephas”). What Jesus said in Matthew 16:18 was: “You are
Kepha, and upon this
kepha I will build my Church.”
When Matthew’s Gospel was translated from the original Aramaic to Greek, there arose a problem which did not confront the evangelist when he first composed his account of Christ’s life. In Aramaic the word
kepha has the same ending whether it refers to a rock or is used as a man’s name. In Greek, though, the word for rock,
petra, is feminine in gender. The translator could use it for the second appearance of
kepha in the sentence, but not for the first because it would be inappropriate to give a man a feminine name. So he put a masculine ending on it, and hence Peter became
Petros.
Furthermore, the premise of the argument against Peter being the rock is simply false. In first century Greek the words
petros and
petra were synonyms. They had previously possessed the meanings of “small stone” and “large rock” in some early Greek poetry, but by the first century this distinction was gone, as Protestant Bible scholars admit (see D. A. Carson’s remarks on this passage in the Expositor’s Bible Commentary, [Grand Rapids: Zondervan Books]).
Some of the effect of Christ’s play on words was lost when his statement was translated from the Aramaic into Greek, but that was the best that could be done in Greek. In English, like Aramaic, there is no problem with endings; so an English rendition could read: “You are Rock, and upon this rock I will build my church.”
Consider another point: If the rock really did refer to Christ (as some claim, based on 1 Cor. 10:4, “and the Rock was Christ” though the rock there was a literal, physical rock), why did Matthew leave the passage as it was? In the original Aramaic, and in the English which is a closer parallel to it than is the Greek, the passage is clear enough. Matthew must have realized that his readers would conclude the obvious from “Rock . . . rock.”
If he meant Christ to be understood as the rock, why didn’t he say so? Why did he take a chance and leave it up to Paul to write a clarifying text? This presumes, of course, that 1 Corinthians was written after Matthew’s Gospel; if it came first, it could not have been written to clarify it.
The reason, of course, is that Matthew knew full well that what the sentence seemed to say was just what it really was saying. It was Simon, weak as he was, who was chosen to become the rock and thus the first link in the chain of the papacy.
Now, forget all your other red herrings for the moment and answer the following
Bottom line question for Dan:
Does Matthew 16:18 reveal that Peter was the rock upon which Jesus would build the Church? Yes or no.