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anthony022071
Guest
- I have explained this one earlier, and again, No we do not accept it simply because it is a false Interpretation, and My reffrences were backed up by, Biblical evidences, Traditions and Church Fathers.
- I have explained this one earlier, and again, No we do not accept it simply because it is a false Interpretation, and My reffrences were backed up by, Biblical evidences, Traditions and Church Fathers.
From this debate:
- you still by-passing my question to you concerning " Cepha(s)" and not “Cepha” as it is clear in the Bible,
The Church Fathers never said that Kephas meant major rock or small rock. That ought to be evidence enough against that protestant argument.Also for the third or fourth time, back to my question to you, one the many you do not wish to answer, …"Here I like to ask you a question, What is your evidence that, kephas in here ( the Roman assertion ) is the Major Rock that the BODY OF CHRIST is built upon and NOT the small rock (Pebble ) ."
“Jesus looked at him and said, ‘You shall be called ‘Cephas’ (which means Peter).” (John 1:42)
- here what the Bible said and Note the diffrence between Petrossssss=Cephassssss and Petra=Cepha. … Matthew 16:17-18,… 17 Jesus said to him in reply, "Blessed are you, Simon( he wasn’t peter yet, just for the record to show you how easily can one be derailed ) son of Jonah. For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you( here the LORD is saying that it is not of you or it is not of Peter=Petros), but my heavenly Father. 18 And so I say to you, you are Peter {Gk. Petros, Aram. Kephas} ( now he is Peter), and upon THIS ROCK {Gk. petra, Aram. kepha}
Catechism of the Catholic Church **116 **The literal sense is the meaning conveyed by the words of Scripture and discovered by exegesis, following the rules of sound interpretation: “All other senses of Sacred Scripture are based on the literal.”The Orthodox apparently depend on the spiritual interpretation to justify the existence of their Church.
Ignatios;3758494:
I’ve shown you that the Church Fathers said that Peter is the Rock upon which the Church is built. Were they all wrong? Do you pit the spiritual interpretation against the literal and obvious interpretation?
Both interpretations are right and part of Holy Tradition. But the literal interpretation is primary,because Jesus used the word Kephas as a name. The Catholic Church admits both interpretations,and the Orthodox Church cannot. From the beginning,Kephas was known to refer to Peter,as is clear from the letters of Paul.
How many of those Church Fathers are from the first ten centuries? Do you count post-schism Catholic clergymen who supported the papacy among your Church Fathers?
The Orthodox apparently depend on the spiritual interpretation to justify the existence of their Church.
To be specific, it is the Roman Catholic Church that transcends borders to evangelize faithful to the command of the Lord to preach the Good News to all creation regardless of race.In the Catholic Church Mt 16:18-19 is a reality. In the EO Church, Mt 16:18-19 has no meaning. “First among equals” is a meaningless phrase.
Besides, which Church looks more like the universal Church?
Orthodox has always been used to define the true faith. Your silly argument about the word “Orthodox” is usually used by junior highschool apologists.Btw, when was the term “Orthodox” first used to distinguish between my church and your church?
Oh puulleeasee! The words were omitted in the copy that I pasted from. It was not an intentional act of conspiracy. The qoute still holds up. The man was a humble servant of God and would never have wanted titles such as “supreme pontiff”, “vicar of Christ”, or “infallibility” attributed to him. You know it–and I know it.I Since I’ve asked four times now for you to explain why you omitted the discrete words
Which means you cannot find those writings. The most we can ascertain is that Pope Pelagius and Pope Gregory did not like the title that St John used. Hence, they would not have used such titles for themselves.I don’t need to do that.
Amen brother. All bishops are successors of St Peter. He is NOT saying that the Pope of Rome is a supreme infallible pontiff.Pope Gregory explains it yet once again here:
For to all who know the Gospel it is apparent that by the Lord’s voice the care of the whole Church was committed to the holy Apostle and Prince of all the Apostles, Peter.
Amen!!! St Peter was bestowed the primacy of honour–yet such lofty titles were not attributed to him.**the care and principality of the whole Church is committed to him, and ****yet he is not called the universal apostle; **
Sheesh! What do you think we are dicussing here? Obviously it is in St Gregory’s letter–however we find nothing from Pope Pelagius. We also see that very little attention was paid to said annullments.asked you three times whether you agree with Pope Gregory’s affirmation of Pope Pelagius’ annulment of John of Constantinople’s synod.
Well then…if that is your conclusion…then who am I to argue.My conclusion is that you won’t answer.
The Pope never had the “supreme” authority and infallibility that the RCC attaches to him today.That’s because you disagree that a Pope has such power
Pope Gregory is a great Orthodox saint. He affirms the authority and primacy of St Peter. He often talks about the orthodoxy and pre-eminence of the Church of Rome–the capital of Christianity. But he surely is not saying what you project him to say.even though Pope Gregory makes it clear that a Pope does have that authority.
My case has already been made friend–regardless of what you say.A bad move to rely upon Pope Gregory to make your case.
Amen.That’s right, he rejects that term
Titles attributed to the pope include: “Bishop of Rome”, “Successor of Peter”, and “Servant of the Servants of God”.I
The Pope has never claimed the term “universal bishop.”
I know the meaning of the word, but you didn’t answer my question lol.Orthodox has always been used to define the true faith. Your silly argument about the word “Orthodox” is usually used by junior highschool apologists.![]()
In all honesty, I was just a curious question as to when your church identified itself in this way.Orthodox has always been used to define the true faith. Your silly argument about the word “Orthodox” is usually used by junior highschool apologists.![]()
Excellent!I know the meaning of the word
I sure did.but you didn’t answer my question
2000 years ago She was orthodox and catholic. Today She remains that way.In all honesty, I was just a curious question as to when your church identified itself in this way.
Excellent!I know the meaning of the word
So you are just saying it abandoned the name?2000 years ago She was orthodox and catholic. Today She remains that way.
Peace
Silly wabbit! Catholic means universal! Do you think these are specific references to the Roman Catholic Church?Ignatius of Antioch
The Muratorian Canon
Tertullian
Thanks for that - I am not good with acronyms, but now I can see it - silly me.EO=Eastern Orthodox
RCC=Roman Catholic Church
CC=Catholic Church
So you are just saying it abandoned the name?
Ignatius of Antioch
“Let no one do anything of concern to the Church without the bishop. Let that be considered a valid Eucharist which is celebrated by the bishop or by one whom he ordains . Wherever the bishop appears, let the people be there; just as wherever Jesus Christ is,* there is the Catholic Church***” (*Letter to the Smyrneans *8:2 [A.D. 110]).
The Martyrdom of Polycarp
“And of the elect, he was one indeed, the wonderful martyr Polycarp, who in our days was an apostolic and prophetic teacher, bishop of the Catholic Church in Smyrna. For every word which came forth from his mouth was fulfilled and will be fulfilled” (Martyrdom of Polycarp 16:2 [A.D. 155]).
The Muratorian Canon
"Besides these [letters of Paul] there is one to Philemon, and one to Titus, and two to Timothy, in affection and love, but nevertheless regarded as holy in the Catholic Church, in the ordering of churchly discipline. There is also one [letter] to the Laodiceans and another to the Alexandrians, forged under the name of Paul, in regard to the heresy of Marcion, and there are several others which cannot be received by the Church, for it is not suitable that gall be mixed with honey. The epistle of Jude, indeed, and the two ascribed to John are received by the Catholic Church (Muratorian fragment [A.D. 177]).
Tertullian
“Where was [the heretic] Marcion, that shipmaster of Pontus, the zealous student of Stoicism? Where was Valentinus, the disciple of Platonism? For it is evident that those men lived not so long ago—in the reign of Antonius for the most part—and that they at first were believers in the doctrine of the Catholic Church, in the church of Rome under the episcopate of the blessed Eleutherius, until on account of their ever restless curiosity, with which they even infected the brethren, they were more than once expelled” (Demurrer Against the Heretics 30 [A.D. 200]).
You do realise that the original texts were written all in CAPITAL LETTERS.
John
when was the orthodox church a catholic one? the thing is…in those writings of great eastern fathers, there were no instances that refer to the orthodox church. the basic and common characteristic of the orthodox churches is that each is essentially enshrined in its own ethnic origin. on the other hand the roman catholic church is always on the go fulfilling the command of the Lord to make disciples of all nations.Silly wabbit! Catholic means universal! Do you think these are specific references to the Roman Catholic Church?
I am through with your elementary antics.
Good day. :tiphat:
the classic example is during the ravages of Arianism–majority of bishops were Arians (in different shades of the error). even the city of Constantinople was under Arianism but thanks to docility of Alexandria and Rome that the true faith prevailed.tdgesq,
Okay, this is a topic that I am very interested in. The purpose of an ecumenical council in the Roman Catholic perspective. Your example of being a father is not exactly comparable, for one, you do not have the capability to make a decision infallibly, if you did, then the only reason you might ask your wife is simply to see if she makes the same decision as you, or just to make her feel like she has a part in the decision making process. In reality, we (I too am a husband) are limited in our decision-making abilities, thus it is very important for us to look to the opinions of our spouses and spiritual fathers.
In the RCC, the Pope is actually Infallible, when speaking ex cathedra. If the early Christians wanted to know the exact nature of Christ, and how Christ relates to the Father and the Spirit, then the only thing they need to do, was ask the Pope to make a proclamation ex Cathedra. This is extremely efficient, and extremely useful. A council is not infallible (unless the Pope ratifies it) and could very well come to the wrong decision, even if there is a council of 500 Bishops and 495 agree on a position, if the Pope denies it then it is wrong. But if 495 out of 500 votes are literally worthless, then why even hold the council at all? What if there are 251 on the side against the Pope, and 249 on the side of the Pope, the side that lost the majority still wins, WHY VOTE!? I can’t understand why, if the early Church knew that the Bishop of Rome is the source and center of all right doctrine, why they would have ever done anything other than ask the Pope. Imagine, you and your friends are gathered together, and you are trying to make a decision about the future that involves all of you, and then God appeared to you and said that He could give you the best answer, would you ever even for a split second think, “Well, I’d rather take a vote with my friends”
God Bless,
John