Why is the Orthodox scripture canon larger?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Lief_Erikson
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
What the OP wrote is immaterial when I’m responding directly to what you said. It very much challenges the idea that the Oriental Orthodox are closer to Catholics based solely on the argument of Canon.

Whether or not they are closer is not something I’ll go into arguing as it isn’t something I’ve ever put any effort into figuring out.
How is it immaterial when I was responding to the OP whose thread is entitled “Why is the Orthodox scripture canon larger”, i.e., not all Orthodox have a larger canon (that was the point of my post)!
 
With regard to Psalms, while I don’t have direct knowlege I’ve heard there are 30 different numbering orders for them. This comes from the author of the e-sword software who is him self a protestant. But as his program is rather eccumenical (even if heavily protestant leaning in officially available source materials), I’m sure he hears from a large number of different Christian groups and probably has heard request regarding an error in how this software handles the numbering of Psalms (Hebrew only).

The Douay bible follows the Vulgate exactly, which I beleive would be more familiar to what the Orthodox use.

The official Church documentation regarding the Canon, as well as the Vulgate and the Douay all number 4 books of Kings rather than 2 Kings 2 Samuel.

With regard to the changes in the numbering of psalms and the numbering of the books of kings, while part of me wants to be a traditionalist and say “forget the protestants, lets do it the way we’ve always done it” I do frankly see the value, particularly here on these forums for adopting a more eccumenical approch. Our goal is to reunite Christianity, that they may be one as the father and the son are one. By taking a more eccumenical approch it makes diaologe easier.
Interesting. I actually made my comment regarding Catholic numbering because all the Catholic bibles I’ve seen have been like that, but I’ve also read the different naming used to be used.
 
How is it immaterial when I was responding to the OP whose thread is entitled “Why is the Orthodox scripture canon larger”, i.e., not all Orthodox have a larger canon (that was the point of my post)!
Because I was correcting a misrepresentation, which I assure you I fully believed was unintentional, in your post.
 
The Books of Samuel and Kings were originally one set of books, the Orthodox have maintained this numbering while the Protestants have changed it, it seems most Catholics have adopted the Protestant system in English speaking countries. Additionally Psalms is numbered differently, off the top of my head I can’t remember the division but one of the earlier ones is held to be two by the West and one of the later ones is held to be two by Orthodox, plus we have one additional psalm “outside the number”.
Thank you Nine Two.

Are any of these books sources of doctrinal differences?

Sorry to reply so late to your response. I do appreciate the help on this.
 
Thank you Nine Two.

Are any of these books sources of doctrinal differences?

Sorry to reply so late to your response. I do appreciate the help on this.
No. The additional psalm is simply:
Code:
My hands made a harp, my fingers fashioned a lyre.
And who will declare it to my Lord? The Lord himself; it is he who hears.
It was he who sent his messenger and took me from my father's sheep, and anointed me with his anointing oil.
My brothers were handsome and tall, but the Lord was not pleased with them.
I went out to meet the Philistine, and he cursed me by his idols.
But I drew his own sword; I beheaded him, and removed reproach from the people of Israel.
The additional books which the Orthodox use don’t contain any additional doctrine. Keep in mind that they are also all OT, while most (though not all) major doctrine comes from the NT.
 
Mardukm, Byzman or others, would you please give me an offial source supporting the claim that the Council of Trent did not close the canon, but that the canon could possibly also include 1 Esdras or the other contested books? I would be very interested to learn more on this! 🙂
 
Dear brother Lief,
Mardukm, Byzman or others, would you please give me an offial source supporting the claim that the Council of Trent did not close the canon, but that the canon could possibly also include 1 Esdras or the other contested books? I would be very interested to learn more on this! 🙂
If anyone does not accept these books as sacred and canonical in their entirety, with all their parts, according to the text usually read in the Catholic Church and as they are in the ancient Latin Vulgate, but knowingly and willfully contemns the traditions previously mentioned: Let him be anathema.

A later papal clarification on the matter asserted that the phrase “according to the text usually read in the Catholic Church and as they are in the ancient Latin Vulgate,” was always intended for the Latin CC alone. I know I had an exact citation in the past, but I can’t find it now. Perhaps someone else reading this can provide the quote.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother Lief,

If anyone does not accept these books as sacred and canonical in their entirety, with all their parts, according to the text usually read in the Catholic Church and as they are in the ancient Latin Vulgate, but knowingly and willfully contemns the traditions previously mentioned: Let him be anathema.

A later papal clarification on the matter asserted that the phrase “according to the text usually read in the Catholic Church and as they are in the ancient Latin Vulgate,” was always intended for the Latin CC alone. I know I had an exact citation in the past, but I can’t find it now. Perhaps someone else reading this can provide the quote.

Blessings,
Marduk
Even the wording would seem to allow for certain additional books to be added to the canon as tradition demands. I would assume so long as the books had never actually been condemed.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top