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just like the title says why is the king james version of the Bible have a added sentence too the end of the Our Father Prayer
If you are asking about the sentence “For thine is the kingdom, etc.”, then this is because the King James translators were working off of a Greek text which they believed to be authentic, but which actually contained later interpolations deriving from Eastern traditions. The insertion of that sentence was erroneous.just like the title says why is the king james version of the Bible have a added sentence too the end of the Our Father Prayer
It sounds similar to what we say at Novus Ordo Mass after the Our Father - “For the kingdom, the power, and the glory are yours, now and forever.” Are they derived from the same source? It’s theologically correct, anyhow.If you are asking about the sentence “For thine is the kingdom, etc.”, then this is because the King James translators were working off of a Greek text which they believed to be authentic, but which actually contained later interpolations deriving from Eastern traditions. The insertion of that sentence was erroneous.
It is recorded in Catholic tradition as early as the Didache. In fact, it was due to the ancient liturgical use of this doxology that it was eventually reverse-incorporated into manuscripts of the Gospels.So why is that line used in the Mass?
That makes perfect sense. One more reason that Sola Scriptura is one of the silliest arguments in Christendom.It is recorded in Catholic tradition as early as the Didache. In fact, it was due to the ancient liturgical use of this doxology that it was eventually reverse-incorporated into manuscripts of the Gospels.