Why is the protestant bible shorter?

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Why is the Protestant bible have missing books ?. What are some reasons that someone would deny these books ?

I think the books are Tobit, Judith 1,2 maccabees, Baruch, Sirach, Wisdom.
 
Why is the Protestant bible have missing books ?. What are some reasons that someone would deny these books ?

I think the books are Tobit, Judith 1,2 maccabees, Baruch, Sirach, Wisdom.
Welcome to CAF. 🙂
This is an oft debated topic, and I suspect the regular arguments will abound.

From my perspective as a Lutheran, I would not use the word “deny”, but instead “questioned” or “disputed”. And they have been since the time of St. Jerome, inside and outside of the Catholic Church.

Jon
 
Why is the Protestant bible have missing books ?. What are some reasons that someone would deny these books ?

I think the books are Tobit, Judith 1,2 maccabees, Baruch, Sirach, Wisdom.
One of my protestant family members told me that it was because there were so many writings that “they” just couldn’t include them all.

I never did ask her who she thought “they” were.
 
they went against some of the protestant beliefs or atleast that’s what I’ve been told (like for an example praying for the dead and purgatory)
 
Welcome to CAF. 🙂
This is an oft debated topic, and I suspect the regular arguments will abound.

From my perspective as a Lutheran, I would not use the word “deny”, but instead “questioned” or “disputed”. And they have been since the time of St. Jerome, inside and outside of the Catholic Church.

Jon
When Luther translated the Bible into German, he included the books that Catholics include and ‘Lutherans’, um, dispute.
 
Why is the Protestant bible have missing books ?. What are some reasons that someone would deny these books ?

I think the books are Tobit, Judith 1,2 maccabees, Baruch, Sirach, Wisdom.
Interesting topic. Some of the objections I’ve heard are that Tobit endorses witchcraft(Tobias makes a spell), Judith prays a prayer that seems to endorse her lying(to the enemy), Sirach teaches salvation by works, and so on. It shouldn’t be forgotten that 2 Maccabbees 12 teaches prayers for the dead, which is inconvenient to those who reject such things.

Myself I think it was a part of the wider misguided “reform” of the Protestant Founders. They took away from the Bible just like they took away from other aspects of the Church. They subtracted what they didn’t like. Similar to why I think Luther wanted to get rid of James. James 2:24 was “inconvenient” to him. Hence James became “the epistle of straw”. But was it really straw? Hardly.
 
When Luther translated the Bible into German, he included the books that Catholics include and ‘Lutherans’, um, dispute.
But it was in a different section from the rest. Don’t forget, he also wanted to do away with Revelation and Hebrews. These were placed in their own special section.
 
When Luther translated the Bible into German, he included the books that Catholics include and ‘Lutherans’, um, dispute.
Not sure why you put Lutherans in quotes, but you are correct. That’s the difference between “disputed” and “denied”.

Jon
 
Why is the Protestant bible have missing books ?. What are some reasons that someone would deny these books ?

I think the books are Tobit, Judith 1,2 maccabees, Baruch, Sirach, Wisdom.
Protestants use the content of the Jewish canon- the Tanakh, but in the same order as the Septuagint with the extra books (deuterocanon or apocrypha depending on the books and depending on your perspective) taken out.

Catholics use the content of the Septuagint as their guide. But they missed a few things. Greek tradition concerning the Greek Septuagint includes a few extra books and a chapter or two that aren’t included in the Catholic canon. Now that’s a curiosity.
 
Protestants use the content of the Jewish canon- the Tanakh, but in the same order as the Septuagint with the extra books (deuterocanon or apocrypha depending on the books and depending on your perspective) taken out.
But, why would Protestants use the Jewish bible which only has 39 books instead of the bible which was made because of the Church ? It was the Church who chose those 7 books. As a Catholic I believe that the Church has authority to choose which books should be or should not be in the bible. The “extra” books were taken out in 90 AD. They were probably removed the book because they talked about Christ death ( book of Wisdome). But, that is not even authoritative. The Church is our authority because it was funded by Christ.
Catholics use the content of the Septuagint as their guide. But they missed a few things. Greek tradition concerning the Greek Septuagint includes a few extra books and a chapter or two that aren’t included in the Catholic canon. Now that’s a curiosity.
There was also more then 4 gosples and I think there was more then one version of the book “acts of the Apostles” in the bible. But then the church decided to choose which books are inspired. The Damasus creed is a list of books that should be in the bible. They include the “extra” books which are in the Catholic bible. The list is confirmed by several councils. The Catholic bible is the original bible.
 
But, why would Protestants use the Jewish bible which only has 39 books instead of the bible
God gave the Tanakh to the Jews, and this was and still is the Word of God. They actually had a tendency to divide it up into 24 books- has to do with 24 letters in the Hebrew alphabet. They make things in 24s whenever they can. You can get there if all the pairs of books are put together and all the minor prophets are put into one book called “The 12 Prophets.”
It was the Church who chose those 7 books. As a Catholic I believe that the Church has authority to choose which books should be or should not be in the bible.
What actually happened was this: All Christians reached a consensus on the 27 books of the NT and Christianity never did reach a consensus on the range of the Septuagint or on whether the Septuagint should even be used as the basis for the OT. Kind of makes you wonder why God would have guided those early councils to reach an infallible consensus on the NT but never got them there on the OT, yes?

Personally, I have a tendency to default to Greek tradition when I’m talking about “the real Septuagint.” It is the Greek Septuagint, after all. You got it from them. The Jews preserved and transmitted the Hebrew Tanakh, and then the Greeks preserved and transmitted the Greek Septuagint. What did the Italians do? Translate things to Latin and decide to pick and choose from the Septuagint table of contents with no apparent rationale?

Yeah, I get it, you have authority so “Because I said so” is supposed to suffice. Maybe that’s how it works for you, but not for me.
The “extra” books were taken out in 90 AD.
The Roman Catholic canon was formally established at the Council of Trent. Up until that time, people were free to (and did) have various things to say about the extent of the OT canon. There was no consensus in 90 AD, not even within the Western scope of things. And there’s never been consensus on this between East and West. Ever.

If God was infallibly guiding this process, He must have decided to infallibly guide things to a permanent lack of consensus with regard to the OT canon. And on top of that, the people who participated in these early councils didn’t know they enjoyed divine protection from error, they didn’t say so, and neither did any of their contemporaries. It wasn’t until the 8th century that anyone began to suggest that early councils may have been protected from error, and the idea didn’t get popular until the 9th century. Consequently, I’m inclined to say they did not enjoy divine protection from error and they reached consensus on what they could while not reaching consensus on other things. This did include certain aspects of the OT canon, and that continues to apply to this day.
There was also more then 4 gosples and I think there was more then one version of the book “acts of the Apostles” in the bible. But then the church decided to choose which books are inspired.
Yes! And happily, they reached a consensus on the New Testament! But- this is important- they did not, repeat, did not EVER reach a consensus on the Old Testament. So you tell me how that works with the whole divine protection from error thing. What’s the deal- the protection only worked for non-Greeks even when they were that many centuries away from any sort of Schism? I’ll remind you again, the Catholic OT canon wasn’t authoritatively (favorite word, right?) defined until Trent, and the Greek canon was finally set in stone less than a century earlier. Both sides made it through the Schism and centuries beyond without reaching consensus on the OT canon among themselves and then neber with each other, so you tell me how that plays out with your whole idea of “authority” and “infallible protection from error” in the early councils.
The Damasus creed is a list of books that should be in the bible. They include the “extra” books which are in the Catholic bible.
How about the books included in Greek tradition but deemed apocryphal by Latin tradition? Are those included? Would an average Greek Christian from any point in history agree that this is the full list of books that accurately represents the Greek Greek Greek Greek Greek Septuagint? (NOT LATIN).
The list is confirmed by several councils.
Not all councils from all places, and the simple fact remains, consensus among all Christians has never ever ever existed with regard to the OT canon. Not even among all Christians within the Roman empire. (The Byzantine Empire counts as the Roman Empire).
The Catholic bible is the original bible.
The Tanakh is the original codification of something called “the Word of God,” and the Tanakh was the first canon ever made. The Jews invented the idea “the canon,” and it was in established use at such an early date that written record of the precise time at which it was established has not survived. By way of contrast, the entirety of Rome’s canon wasn’t set until Trent. Granted, consensus on the NT was a joint effort of all Catholic/Orthodox Christians within the Roman Empire, but the Tanakh was the first canon ever created. The NT canon was the second one. Protestants use these two canons. Roman Catholics use the second one along with a truncated version of the Septuagint’s table of contents for which the Greeks are initially responsible.
 
Psalm19, welcome to CAF. here you will get information on many subjects, this being one of the more discussed threads. You need to remember that there is the Catholic teaching and the Protestant view regarding the Deuterocanonical books and the two do not line up with each other, as is already evident. There are those here that will adamantly defend error with regards to the deutero’s because they have to defend their Protestant views.

Here is a quick history lesson:

•Melito, bishop of Sardis, an ancient city of Asia Minor c. 170 AD produced the first known Christian attempt at an Old Testament canon. His list maintains the Septuagint order of books but contains only the Old Testament protocanonicals minus the Book of Esther.
•The Council of Laodicea, c. 360, produced a list of books similar to today’s canon. This was one of the Church’s earliest decisions on a canon.
•Pope Damasus, 366-384, in his Decree, listed the books of today’s canon.
•The Council of Rome, 382, was the forum which prompted Pope Damasus’ Decree.
•Bishop Exuperius of Toulouse wrote to Pope Innocent I in 405 requesting a list of canonical books. Pope Innocent listed the present canon.
•The Council of Hippo, a local North Africa council of bishops created the list of the Old and New Testament books in 393 which are the same as the Roman Catholic list today.
•The Council of Carthage, a local North Africa council of bishops created the same list of canonical books in 397. This is the council which many Protestant and Evangelical Christians take as the authority for the New Testament canon of books. The Old Testament canon from the same council is identical to Roman Catholic canon today.
•Council of Carthage in 419 offered the same list of canonical books.
•Since the Roman Catholic Church does not define truths unless errors abound on the matter, Roman Catholic Christians look to the Council of Florence, an ecumenical council in 1441 for the first definitive list of canonical books.
•The final infallible definition of canonical books for Roman Catholic Christians came from the Council of Trent in 1556 in the face of the errors of the Reformers who rejected seven Old Testament books from the canon of scripture to that time.

There was no canon of scripture in the early Church; there was no Bible. The Bible is the book of the Church; she is not the Church of the Bible. It was the Church–her leadership, faithful people–guided by the authority of the Spirit of Truth which discovered the books inspired by God in their writing. The Church did not create the canon. Fixed canons of the Old and New Testaments, hence the Bible, were not known much before the end of the 2nd and early 3rd century.

See the attached PDF
 
God gave the Tanakh to the Jews…
Thanks for your succinct and accurate summary. This topic, along “sola scriptura,” always seem to generate the greatest amount misinformation on this forum. Especially that “90 AD” thing…
 
Why is the Protestant bible have missing books ?. What are some reasons that someone would deny these books ?

I think the books are Tobit, Judith 1,2 maccabees, Baruch, Sirach, Wisdom.
The DCs were used by the earliest Christians. Those ECFs that questioned them continued to quote them curiously as if useful and authoritative in some instances. Some of these writings supported doctrine Luther rejected. Catholics accept them because of early church tradition, Protestants reject them because of reformation tradition.

In Christ,
JMS
 
God gave the Tanakh to the Jews, and this was and still is the Word of God. They actually had a tendency to divide it up into 24 books- has to do with 24 letters in the Hebrew alphabet. They make things in 24s whenever they can. You can get there if all the pairs of books are put together and all the minor prophets are put into one book called “The 12 Prophets.”.
God did give the the Tanakh to the Jews. But, that does not mean that the Roman Catholic is not accurate.
What actually happened was this: All Christians reached a consensus on the 27 books of the NT and Christianity never did reach a consensus on the range of the Septuagint or on whether the Septuagint should even be used as the basis for the OT. Kind of makes you wonder why God would have guided those early councils to reach an infallible consensus on the NT but never got them there on the OT, yes?
Well, the Church chose the books which belong in the OT and NT. The books that set the Catholic bible was set 382 by Pope Damuses. It was confirmid by other councils. Also, the Catholic bible was the first bible, so it was always believed to be the word of God.
Personally, I have a tendency to default to Greek tradition when I’m talking about “the real Septuagint.” It is the Greek Septuagint, after all. You got it from them. The Jews preserved and transmitted the Hebrew Tanakh, and then the Greeks preserved and transmitted the Greek Septuagint. What did the Italians do? Translate things to Latin and decide to pick and choose from the Septuagint table of contents with no apparent rationale?

Yeah, I get it, you have authority so “Because I said so” is supposed to suffice. Maybe that’s how it works for you, but not for me.
Yes, the church does have authority. Christ appointed Peter, and Jesus built his church on Peter ( Mathew 16:18)
The Roman Catholic canon was formally established at the Council of Trent. Up until that time, people were free to (and did) have various things to say about the extent of the OT canon. There was no consensus in 90 AD, not even within the Western scope of things. And there’s never been consensus on this between East and West. Ever.
Actually, the bible was set at 382. Also, the Council of Jamnia, did reject the septugint because it was not not written in Hebrew and made Jesus look like the Messiah,
If God was infallibly guiding this process, He must have decided to infallibly guide things to a permanent lack of consensus with regard to the OT canon.

Yes! And happily, they reached a consensus on the New Testament! But- this is important- they did not, repeat, did not EVER reach a consensus on the Old Testament. So you tell me how that works with the whole divine protection from error thing. What’s the deal- the protection only worked for non-Greeks even when they were that many centuries away from any sort of Schism? I’ll remind you again, the Catholic OT canon wasn’t authoritatively (favorite word, right?) defined until Trent, and the Greek canon was finally set in stone less than a century earlier. Both sides made it through the Schism and centuries beyond without reaching consensus on the OT canon among themselves and then neber with each other, so you tell me how that plays out with your whole idea of “authority” and “infallible protection from error” in the early councils.
.
The Catholic bible was estabilished at 382 by the Pope not, at the council of Trent. The church chose the books that should be and which books should not be in the bible. The Catholic bible was the first bible. If anyone can choose which books belong in the bible it would be the church funded by Christ. The bible was set at 382. This was the first bible. The Catholic bible was estabilished before any protestant religion even existed and even before the Orthodox reformation.
How about the books included in Greek tradition but deemed apocryphal by Latin tradition? Are those included? Would an average Greek Christian from any point in history agree that this is the full list of books that accurately represents the Greek Greek Greek Greek Greek Septuagint? (NOT LATIN).
.
Im not sure what an Greek Christian would say. But, as I said before the Church had authority to choose which books should be in the Bible. The church did not choose, the other books in the LXX so they would not be considered the word of God.
Not all councils from all places, and the simple fact remains, consensus among all Christians has never ever ever existed with regard to the OT canon. Not even among all Christians within the Roman empire. (The Byzantine Empire counts as the Roman Empire).

The Tanakh is the original codification of something called “the Word of God,” and the Tanakh was the first canon ever made. The Jews invented the idea “the canon,” and it was in established use at such an early date that written record of the precise time at which it was established has not survived. By way of contrast, the entirety of Rome’s canon wasn’t set until Trent. Granted, consensus on the NT was a joint effort of all Catholic/Orthodox Christians within the Roman Empire, but the Tanakh was the first canon ever created. The NT canon was the second one. Protestants use these two canons. Roman Catholics use the second one along with a truncated version of the Septuagint’s table of contents for which the Greeks are initially responsible.
The Tanakh is the word of God. So are the 7 books in the Catholic bible. If we are only to believe what is in the Tanakh then we should also deny the NT too.
 
Well, the Church chose the books which belong in the OT and NT. The books that set the Catholic bible was set 382 by Pope Damuses. It was confirmid by other councils. Also, the Catholic bible was the first bible, so it was always believed to be the word of God.
The “councils” which you refer to were actually only local synods. At best, their decisions (about which we have very few records) would only apply to the Latinate church. The fact that other apostolic churches selected different canons bears this out.
Actually, the bible was set at 382. Also, the Council of Jamnia, did reject the septugint because it was not not written in Hebrew and made Jesus look like the Messiah,
There was no “Council of Jamnia”; this is a pure fiction dreamed up by Christian apologists. If you want to assert that there was, you need to cite some primary sources. The Bible was certainly not “set” in 382. If you want to assert that then you have to explain how and why other apostolic churches (Byzantine, Armenian, Ethiopic, Churches of the East, for example) came up with different Biblical canons.
 
The DCs were used by the earliest Christians. Those ECFs that questioned them continued to quote them curiously as if useful and authoritative in some instances. Some of these writings supported doctrine Luther rejected. Catholics accept them because of early church tradition, Protestants reject them because of reformation tradition.

In Christ,
JMS
Hi JMS,
And Luther said they were useful, as well, and Lutherans continue to quote them today, sometimes even as scripture readings from the lectionary. It is simplistic to say that Luther rejected them based on doctrine, in part because almost no doctrine exclusively derives from the D-C’s. Is there a doctrine that derives soley from Sirach, or Wisdom, or Tobit, for example, that Luther or Lutherans reject? If not, then this argument falls apart.
If it were based on doctrine, there would have been more selectivity on the questioning of the books.

Jon

Jon
 
=josephback;7902255]Interesting topic. Some of the objections I’ve heard are that Tobit endorses witchcraft(Tobias makes a spell), Judith prays a prayer that seems to endorse her lying(to the enemy), Sirach teaches salvation by works, and so on. It shouldn’t be forgotten that 2 Maccabbees 12 teaches prayers for the dead, which is inconvenient to those who reject such things.
Lutherans do not reject prayer for the dead, not to be confused with invocation.
Myself I think it was a part of the wider misguided “reform” of the Protestant Founders. They took away from the Bible just like they took away from other aspects of the Church. They subtracted what they didn’t like. Similar to why I think Luther wanted to get rid of James. James 2:24 was “inconvenient” to him. Hence James became “the epistle of straw”. But was it really straw? Hardly.
Be sure to use the complete phrase. Luther did not say, simply, it was a book of straw. He said it was in comparison to other Epistles.
“In a word St. John’s Gospel and his first epistle, St. Paul’s epistles, especially Romans, Galatians, and Ephesians, and St. Peter’s first epistle are the books that show you Christ and teach you all that is necessary and salvatory for you to know, even if you were never to see or hear any other book or doctrine. Therefore St. James’ epistle is really an epistle of straw, compared to these others, for it has nothing of the nature of the gospel about it.
And he further says of James:
“Though this epistle of St. James was rejected by the ancients, I praise it and consider it a good book, because it sets up no doctrines of men but vigorously promulgates the law of God. However, to state my own opinion about it, though without prejudice to anyone, I do not regard it as the writing of an apostle;
In this way, he is reflecting people such as Eusebius and Jerome, who also had their doubts about the authorship of James.
But it was in a different section from the rest. Don’t forget, he also wanted to do away with Revelation and Hebrews. These were placed in their own special section.
Yes they were, reflecting the “disputed” nature of these books throughout the history of the Church, as far back as Eusebius, who referred to them as “Antilegomena”.

Again, it is too simplistic to say that Luther’s questioning of certain books was based particularly on his theology. The “book of straw” quote appeared only in his first preface to James, and was later removed. Plus, had he felt so strongly opposed to any of these, why would he have taken the time to translate books he disapproved of?
This is not an issue of “adding books” or “removing books”, as it is often portrayed. There is a lot of Church history involved, long before 1534.

Jon
 
Hi JMS,
And Luther said they were useful, as well, and Lutherans continue to quote them today, sometimes even as scripture readings from the lectionary. It is simplistic to say that Luther rejected them based on doctrine, in part because almost no doctrine exclusively derives from the D-C’s. Is there a doctrine that derives soley from Sirach, or Wisdom, or Tobit, for example, that Luther or Lutherans reject? If not, then this argument falls apart.
If it were based on doctrine, there would have been more selectivity on the questioning of the books.

Jon
It must also be pointed out that Luther was not alone in his disputing the D-C’s. Cardinal Cajetan, a Luther contemporary and one might say adversary, said this:
“Here we close our commentaries on the historical books of the Old Testament. For the rest (that is, Judith, Tobit, and the books of Maccabees) are counted by St Jerome out of the canonical books, and are placed amongst the Apocrypha, along with Wisdom and Ecclesiasticus, as is plain from the Prologus Galeatus. Nor be thou disturbed, like a raw scholar, if thou shouldest find anywhere, either in the sacred councils or the sacred doctors, these books reckoned as canonical. For the words as well of councils as of doctors are to be reduced to the correction of Jerome. Now, according to his judgment, in the epistle to the bishops Chromatius and Heliodorus, these books (and any other like books in the canon of the Bible) are not canonical, that is, not in the nature of a rule for confirming matters of faith. Yet, they may be called canonical, that is, in the nature of a rule for the edification of the faithful, as being received and authorised in the canon of the Bible for that purpose. By the help of this distinction thou mayest see thy way clearly through that which Augustine says, and what is written in the provincial council of Carthage.”
Now, as Cajetan was not an ally of Luther, it seems there was more here than just “I don’t agree with them, so throw them out”.

Jon
 
Lutherans do not reject prayer for the dead, not to be confused with invocation.
I didn’t know that. Most of the people I know (Lutherans or not) reject such things. Or at least Purgatory.
Be sure to use the complete phrase. Luther did not say, simply, it was a book of straw. He said it was in comparison to other Epistles.

And he further says of James:

In this way, he is reflecting people such as Eusebius and Jerome, who also had their doubts about the authorship of James.

Yes they were, reflecting the “disputed” nature of these books throughout the history of the Church, as far back as Eusebius, who referred to them as “Antilegomena”.
Fair enough.
Again, it is too simplistic to say that Luther’s questioning of certain books was based particularly on his theology. The “book of straw” quote appeared only in his first preface to James, and was later removed. Plus, had he felt so strongly opposed to any of these, why would he have taken the time to translate books he disapproved of?
This is not an issue of “adding books” or “removing books”, as it is often portrayed. There is a lot of Church history involved, long before 1534.

Jon
I need to do more study on this. I did know there was some dispute about these books. I thought the Councils cleared this up.
 
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