T
tjhaefner
Guest
My brother-in-law (who converted to RC to marry my sister but now she and he are Anglican–don’t get me started with that) asked me why scriptural inspiration wasn’t mentioned explicitly in the creed. Before I had a chance to look at the CCC (para 81+), I told him that the Four Pillars of the Church (one, Holy, Catholic, and apostolic) grants that implicitly since it is the Church that gave us the bible, not the other way around.
Is there another way of explaining this to him? The CCC lists this as implied under “I believe” of the Creed. I guess the evolution of the Creed would be helpful too–did the earliest (pre-Nicene) creeds pre-date canons of scripture. I assume so.
As a side note, he was quite compelled by the organization of the CCC. I know–this shouldn’t have been a shock to him since he went through RCIA. He claims he was never really taught from the CCC as an authoratative source. I firmly believe if he had a better RCIA, he was be in the Catholic Church still since my sister has a very terse interpretation of Eph 5–that she must fallow her husband in ALL things. Please pray for them!!!
JH
Is there another way of explaining this to him? The CCC lists this as implied under “I believe” of the Creed. I guess the evolution of the Creed would be helpful too–did the earliest (pre-Nicene) creeds pre-date canons of scripture. I assume so.
As a side note, he was quite compelled by the organization of the CCC. I know–this shouldn’t have been a shock to him since he went through RCIA. He claims he was never really taught from the CCC as an authoratative source. I firmly believe if he had a better RCIA, he was be in the Catholic Church still since my sister has a very terse interpretation of Eph 5–that she must fallow her husband in ALL things. Please pray for them!!!
JH