Why must we pray for dead people?

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This is an interesting question. I always prayed for dead people, but someone just brought this up. I mean I have an idea that praying to mother mary for their forgiveness and for mercy for them makes sense because of the special relationship between Mary and Jesus.

However, is there direct scriptural evidence that we can or cannot do this and if it will actually work? I know implicitly there is a lot. How about directly? Anything is good, need to build a good case. 😃
 
Here’s the Scripture verse. From the Douay-Rheims:
2Ma 12:46 It is therefore a holy and wholesome thought to pray for the dead, that they may be loosed from sins.
 
HI JF,

We can ask God for anything including the delivery of the deceased from purgatory. It’s His decision, however, and He takes into account things of which we are not even aware.

As for biblical support, see 2 Maccabees 12:38-46
38 Judas rallied his army and went to the city of Adullam. As the week was ending, they purified themselves according to custom and kept the sabbath there. 39 On the following day, since the task had now become urgent, Judas and his men went to gather up the bodies of the slain and bury them with their kinsmen in their ancestral tombs. 40 But under the tunic of each of the dead they found amulets sacred to the idols of Jamnia, which the law forbids the Jews to wear. So it was clear to all that this was why these men had been slain. 41 They all therefore praised the ways of the Lord, the just judge who brings to light the things that are hidden. 42 7 Turning to supplication, they prayed that the sinful deed might be fully blotted out. The noble Judas warned the soldiers to keep themselves free from sin, for they had seen with their own eyes what had happened because of the sin of those who had fallen. 43 He then took up a collection among all his soldiers, amounting to two thousand silver drachmas, which he sent to Jerusalem to provide for an expiatory sacrifice. In doing this he acted in a very excellent and noble way, inasmuch as he had the resurrection of the dead in view; 44 for if he were not expecting the fallen to rise again, it would have been useless and foolish to pray for them in death. 45 But if he did this with a view to the splendid reward that awaits those who had gone to rest in godliness, it was a holy and pious thought. 46 Thus he made atonement for the dead that they might be freed from this sin.
There is an excellent piece on praying for the dead at

http://www.americancatholic.org/Messenger/Nov2000/Wiseman.asp

Verbum
 
Thanks all.

I need more than Maccabees though, I like the last link, it’s what I used.

Maccabees is not in all bibles remember.
 
It doesn’t really matter. I think I wrote up something with a bit of research. It’s a shame that the other catholic websites didn’t expand a bit more on this, because Maccabees is not in all Bibles, to have an argument with a non-catholic, you should try to use evidence in all Bibles.

Here is what I wrote:

Next post
 
Jewish practices were often very similar to the early christian practices, and the jews did infact pray for their dead. And Jesus…He was a Jew! He knew the jewish scriptures very well, and he in no way disregarded them or contradicted them.

The standard Jewish Old Testament at the time of Christ was the Septuagint, which was created in 280 B.C. by 72 Jewish scribes who translated the existing Hebrew texts into Greek. This version was used by the writers of the New Testament as evidenced by their citing it over 300 times out of 350 Old Testament references in preference to other versions. The Septuagint contains the seven books considered “apocrypha” by the Protestants (Tobias, Judith, Wisdom, Ecclesiasticus/Sirach, Baruch, I and II Maccabees)

Yes, the protestants don’t follow these books. But Jesus certainly DID. He was a Jew, Joseph was a Jew. HIS breathren who followed him were Jews. Jesus was nearly always at the synagogues preaching. And what did he preach from most of the time besides his parables? The Jewish scriptures! He did simply know the scriptures when he was born, he studied them as every good Jew at the time would. And the Jews followed the Jewish scriptures. For Christ to do one thing and preach another thing would have been contradictory, he never did that.

Read Eph. 3:14-15 (NEW TESTAMENT) Ephesians

What is this passage saying? We are all one family in heaven and on earth, united together, as children of the Father, through Jesus Christ. Our brothers and sisters who have gone to heaven before us are not a different family. Also we can never know in this life what the final judgement of someone is. That is why there is prayer. Sure the bible says certain types of people do not go to heaven, but it also speaks of repentance, and more often than not LOTS of people repent before they die, when the conscience or private revelation strikes them. And Jesus said has said not to judge “unless ye be judged yourself”. This is one of the most basic implicit understandings of prayers of the dead.

The next really important bit of scripture:

Romans 8:35-39 (Read this first)

Clearly if nothing, not even death separates us, then we are REQUIRED to pray for the dead. This is VERY clear. The passage asks us: “Who shall seperate us, from the love of Christ”? And then it says not even death. Hence if in life we pray for people and they are not separated from us, then certainly in death when they are STILL not separated from us, prayer will work! For it is through the love of Christ, what is the love of Christ? Prayer, sacrifice, offerings, humility. Exactly what the offering of the mass is! This is very important. The love of Christ, and how we reflect these things.

So this is pretty clear, just because someone faces judgement and you say other people’s prayer’s dont affect them, then this contradicts scripture!
We can never know how God’s judgement EXACTLY works, but God has ALWAYS required of us prayer, compassion, mercy and forgiveness. While we are still alive, there has never been anything said not to pray for the dead since Romans 8 says, We are not separated.

Physical unity or presence is not what dictates prayer. I think this is the confusion here. Prayer is spiritual. Whether or not the person is present does not matter. Prayer is spiritual. So if prayer is spiritual, what does it affect? The soul firstly. Prayer can be done for the physical wellbeing of someone, because prayer is essentially a spiritual essence, spiritual essence is GREATER than physical essence. This is pretty obvious. Spirits are far more superior than physical beings. Angels, demons and God. So remember that we are not separated by death. Hence spiritually we are connected and the lines of communication to a spirit, whether it be to God or another spirit is prayer. This is why even people calling demons and invoking unclean spirits, “meditate” . They are essentially praying to. It’s a spiritual communication.

OLD TESTAMENT

“Prayers for the dead” are mentioned in 2 Maccabees 12:43-45[1], a sacrifice is offered by Judas as a propitiatory sin-offering and a memorial thank-offering. These prayers and sacrifices were intended to improve the standing of the dead during the resurrection.

This is from the old testament. Judas may have betrayed Jesus, but his act here is signalling something very important. What was done at the time.

Early tradition is greatly important from the early church fathers. Why? Because they lived a lot closer to that time and were much more aware of what was to be done and what not to be done.

“Therefore, brethren, stand fast; and hold the traditions which you have learned, … and hold the traditions which you were taught “

2 Thessalonians 2:15
Same thing is repeated on:

1 Corinthians 11:2
 
Maccabees is not in all bibles remember.
Well, that’s not anymore the problem of the Church if Protestants took that book off their Bibles; the point is that Catholics can point to a passage without fear, and can back it up even from early Christian sources.
 
Well, that’s not anymore the problem of the Church if Protestants took that book off their Bibles; the point is that Catholics can point to a passage without fear, and can back it up even from early Christian sources.
And if you looked at my long post, I gave about a paragraph explaining the “apocrypha” in regards to jewish scripture and tradition.

I want my main point articulated around the contents of Bibles that everyone has.

Doing it your way, the argument is likely to lead into an argument about who’s Bible is right.
 
I want my main point articulated around the contents of Bibles that everyone has.
That’s well and good, though problematic as we Catholics don’t subscribe to the Bible that Protestants use. In simple terms, it’s not complete, and as David Currie pointed out, leads one to suspect Protestant viewpoints because of this.
Doing it your way, the argument is likely to lead into an argument about who’s Bible is right.
Again, we can’t help it as this is already out of our hands; this is the result of what happened in history, and we have to use the ones we have at our disposal, and the Church is fortunate enough to keep the Bible as the ancient Councils decreed them to be–though this point is really for another topic. My only point is that we can quote from the Bible and find the stance to be tenable; Protestants will have a hard time refuting Catholic claims without going into that discussion about the Bible itself. It’s bound to end up that way anyway sooner or later.
 
That’s well and good, though problematic as we Catholics don’t subscribe to the Bible that Protestants use. In simple terms, it’s not complete, and as David Currie pointed out, leads one to suspect Protestant viewpoints because of this.

Again, we can’t help it as this is already out of our hands; this is the result of what happened in history, and we have to use the ones we have at our disposal, and the Church is fortunate enough to keep the Bible as the ancient Councils decreed them to be–though this point is really for another topic. My only point is that we can quote from the Bible and find the stance to be tenable; Protestants will have a hard time refuting Catholic claims without going into that discussion about the Bible itself. It’s bound to end up that way anyway sooner or later.
You really have no idea what I’m on about do you.

I won’t argue this further.
 
One of the reasons Protestants do not pray for the dead is that they do not believe in Purgatory. Therefore, the dead are either in Heaven or Hell. Either way, our prayers would not change anything for them.

So I would suggest looking at verses that imply Purgatory. There are some in the Protestant New Testament, but the Protestants either ignore them or think that the purification after death is instantaneous. If you can convince your Protestant friend of the possibility of Purgatory, then the benefit of prayers for the dead is evident.

Even if you can’t, remind them that God is eternal and outside of time. Your prayers for the dead now could have had benefits for them during their lifetime. Also, even if a prayer for the dead is simply a way of saying “I love you” to someone deceased, what could be wrong with that?
 
Thanks all.

I need more than Maccabees though, I like the last link, it’s what I used.

Maccabees is not in all bibles remember.
It was until the mid 1800’s when the protestants removed it.
 
Yes, but the person I am arguing with is NOT a catholic.
2 Timothy 1:16-18, May the Lord grant mercy to the house of onesiphorus, because he often comforted me and was not ashamed of my chains; but when he came to Rome, he sought me out diligently and found me. May the Lord grant him to find mercy from the Lord on that day. And thou knowest very well the many services he rendered me at Ephesus.” ( Onesiphorus is spoken of as now dead; he was an official of the church at Ephsus.)
2 Tim 1:18 The eschatological tone of the verse has created some problems in interpreting it. The difficulty arises because the verse does not explicitly say that Onesiphorus was alive at the time the letter was written; there is therefore a possibility that he could have been dead by that time. This position is supported by verse 16, where a blessing is pronounced on Onesiphorus’ family but not directly on Onesiphorus himself. Furthermore, the blessing pronounced for Onesiphorus is not for the present but for the future, that is, the final day of judgment. Accordingly some interpreters support the position that Onesiphorus was dead when this letter was written
. But if this is correct, then how does one take the blessing pronounced on Onesiphorus? If it is taken as a prayer (for the subjunctive form, see discussion on 2 Tim 1:16), **then this would be a prayer for someone who is already dead **from:(from the UBS Handbook Series. Copyright © 1961-1997, by United Bible Societies.)

A strong case can be made from NT for sacred oral tradition equal to sacred written tradition therefore what those early church Fathers is absolutely relevant, and if they are wrong from the get go, then everything is up for grabs:

“And after the exhibition, Tryphaena again receives her. For her daughter Falconilla had died, and said to her in a dream: Mother, thou shall have this stranger Thecla in my place, in order that she may pray concerning me, **and that I **may be transferred to the place of the just.” Acts of Paul and Thecla(A.D. 160),in ANF,VIII:490

"Without delay, on that very night, this was shown to me in a vision. I saw Dinocrates going out from a gloomy place, where also there were several others, and he was parched and very thirsty, with a filthy countenance and pallid colour, and the wound on his face which he had when he died. This Dinocrates had been my brother after the flesh, seven years of age? who died miserably with disease…But I trusted that my prayer would bring help to his suffering; and I prayed for him every day until we passed over into the prison of the camp, for we were to fight in the camp-show. Then was the birth-day of Gets Caesar, and I made my prayer for my brother day and night, groaning and weeping that he might be granted to me.Then, on the day on which we remained in fetters, this was shown to me. I saw that that place which I had formerly observed to be in gloom was now bright; and Dinocrates, with a clean body well clad, was finding refreshment. And where there had been a wound, I saw a scar; and that pool which I had before seen, I saw now with its margin lowered even to the boy’s navel. And one drew water from the pool incessantly, and upon its brink was a goblet filled with water; and Dinocrates drew near and began to drink from it, and the goblet did not fail. And when he was satisfied, he went away from the water to play joyously, after the manner of children, and **I awoke. Then I understood that he was translated from the place of punishment." The Passion of Perpetua and Felicitias,2:3-4(A.D. 202),in ANF,III:701-702

**"As often as the anniversary comes round, we make offerings for the dead as birthday honours." Tertullian,The Chaplut,3(A.D. 211),in ANF,III:94
“[A] woman is more bound when her husband is dead…Indeed,she prays for his soul,and requests refreshment for him meanwhie, and fellowship(with him) in the first resurrection;and she offers (her sacrifice) on the anniversary of his falling asleep.” **Tertullian,**On Monogamy,10(A.D. 216),in ANF,III:66-67
 
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