V
vluvski
Guest
I’m learning more about Eastern Orthodoxy in another thread, and our discussion led me to wonder why, in the recent changes to the Mass and the creed, we did not exclude the filioque.
If the Eastern Catholics’ English version of the creed deliberately excludes the filioque, and if the pope found it appropriate to exclude the filioque when he recited the creed in Greek, why is it necessary to keep it in the Nicene creed that was already being changed?
It seems like this had the potential to be a gesture of good will toward our Orthodox brothers and sisters.
When I posed the question in the other thread, a Coptic Orthodox Christian said he has asked the same question, and was told it has to do with fighting Arianism, specifically in Spain. Except I’m not talking about changing it for the entire church, just that it could have been included in the changes for the English version, which was already being revised. Changes to the English version are not really relevant to the Arian situation in Spain. I will come back with his exact quote in another post, in case I misunderstood.
If the Eastern Catholics’ English version of the creed deliberately excludes the filioque, and if the pope found it appropriate to exclude the filioque when he recited the creed in Greek, why is it necessary to keep it in the Nicene creed that was already being changed?
It seems like this had the potential to be a gesture of good will toward our Orthodox brothers and sisters.
When I posed the question in the other thread, a Coptic Orthodox Christian said he has asked the same question, and was told it has to do with fighting Arianism, specifically in Spain. Except I’m not talking about changing it for the entire church, just that it could have been included in the changes for the English version, which was already being revised. Changes to the English version are not really relevant to the Arian situation in Spain. I will come back with his exact quote in another post, in case I misunderstood.