Why Only the Blessed Virgin Mary?

[Le_Cracquere]

It seems to me that you’re taking things too far and also out of context. Remember, the idea isn’t so much that God 'had to have" something just so but that if God deliberately chose to have something ‘just so’ that He did so for a reason, even if we didn’t see it.
Did God HAVE to have the Temple? Did He HAVE TO have the Ark of the Covenant?

God did not NEED the Temple nor the Ark. He could have chosen endless ‘others’. He could have existed in that ‘cloud’ forever, atop the hills of Jerusalem. He could have asked for a ‘plain wood box’ for the Ark. He could also have asked for a 100 story ‘Crystal Cathedral’ or an Ark studded with gems and lined with platinum.

So since He chose what He chose. . .and gave very specific directions. . .there was a good reason.

Now God chose Mary and He chose her as virgin (see the Old Testament) obviously for a good reason. There are a lot of other Scriptural parallels between Mary, Christ, and the Ark and the Temple etc. etc. So. . .whatever God chose to do with Mary was something of good and sufficient reason.

God can do as he pleases, of course; I’d never dispute that. It’s just that the explanations I’ve seen tend to undercut other things about God’s nature that seem (on the surface) more central to Christ’s mission on Earth and His purposes for humanity. It makes Him fall out of focus, and I was just hoping that someone had made a stab at explaining the apparent contradiction.

IF He chose her to be sinless to make the parallel of the OT more significant, there was reason. God knows that Mary is treated enough by our Protestant brethren as sinful and miserable, and God also knows that this carries over to the Protestant imperfect view of Jesus, and the communion of saints. Perhaps that is but ONE of the reasons He chose to make this humble woman born in the same manner as He had already created ONE human --Eve. (Remember, Eve was also created without sin.) In order to show that Man’s natural bend was NOT FOR SIN.

Going by statements like yours, there must be Protestants somewhere who feel that way about Mary, Jesus, and the communion of saints. If it makes you feel better, I don’t feel that way, and I’ve never known a Protestant in my neck of the woods who does. And Amen to your last sentence.

 

[RoryMcKenzie56]

Why only Eve?

As one woman participates preeminently in man’s fall, so one woman participates preeminently in man’s redemption. The Fathers of the Church began very early, in calling her the Second Eve, with St. Irenaeus contrast her with the one woman who fell, Eve, who followed the advice of a fallen angel unto death versus the one woman, Mary, who followed the advice of God’s angel unto life. Eve was not conceived of course, but like Mary, was free of original sin.

God could have done it another way as the Muslims say. But this is the way He chose, with a certain comforting uniformity that informs us how Redemption reverses the effect of the Fall through the same kind of instrument which once led to ruin. The Catholic Church has contemplated the remarkability of the inspired homage of the holy angel Gabriel, in addressing her as “full of grace”. Is this the way an angel of God addresses an ordinary human soul? Could it even be theologically accurate to describe someone still carrying the guilt of original and actual sin as “full of grace”. It seems most improbable to me and debatable at best.

There are many other reasons I trust the judgment of the Holy Catholic Church in every matter of faith and morals. I am happy to say that even apart from my complete unwillingness to depart from one truth that the Church should teach, if the playing field were level so as to remove ecclesiastical authority from the debate, I would opt for a sinless and immaculately conceived Mother of God.

 

[4EverHis]

God was able to save Our Blessed Mother from Original Sin and this is called the “Immaculate Conception.” However, I wonder why it is that God would choose to save only Mary in this way? What I mean is, it seems like the Doctrine of the Immaculate Conception seems to compromise our own need for a savior in Jesus Christ because God has “other ways” available to save us because he saved Mary “differently” than He saved us.

Hi, this is not true, cause Mary was also saved through Christ she was just saved at a different time, - at her conception… but it also happened through His merits. It’s not a “different” way.

The reason why the Immaculate Conception only happened with Our Lady, is because she was chosen to be Jesus’ Mother, and He received His human nature from her… so for His sake, she needed to be free of sin, so He would not be born of a sinner. This way, the human nature He received from her was perfect

God does not save us in this same way because only Mary is His Mother.

Hope that helps…

the Assumption of Mary is closely linked with the Immaculate Conception… God did not allow the body of His Mother to be corrupted or decay in the ground… because she is sinless, and also because He got His human nature from her… so He took her body up to Heaven as well as her soul.

God bless

 

[mardukm]

Dear brother robdaddy,

So Our Blessed Mother did need the death of Our Lord to be saved but His death was efficacious for her sooner? Or, she was preserved from Original Sin to “Welcome” her own savior but wasn’t, herself “fully saved” until his sacrificial death?

I know I’m not using technically accurate theological terms here but I’m doing the best with what I’ve got…am I even close?

There are several Fathers of the Church (mostly from the Eastern Church) who state that Mary was the source of her own salvation. That’s just a hyperbolic way to say that the Flesh that saved us came from Mary herself.

I hope that didn’t confuse you more.

Blessings,
Marduk

 

[TristanCross]

God didn’t choose Mary because she was sinless, nor was she sinless. The Bible tells is that if we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves. Mary was chosen because Jesus had to be a son of David

 

[GeorgeSword]

God didn’t choose Mary because she was sinless, nor was she sinless. The Bible tells is that if we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves. Mary was chosen because Jesus had to be a son of David

Of course God didn’t choose her because she was without sin. He made her Immaculate
When Scripture says that if any of us claim to be without sin we deceive ourselves, I suspect it is referring to haughtiness on the matter of personal bragging, rather than the Blessed Mother.

 

[PJM]

=robdaddyf;-God was able to save Our Blessed Mother from Original Sin and this is called the “Immaculate Conception.” However, I wonder why it is that God would choose to save only Mary in this way? What I mean is, it seems like the Doctrine of the Immaculate Conception seems to compromise our own need for a savior in Jesus Christ because God has “other ways” available to save us because he saved Mary “differently” than He saved us.

I am a new Catholic (going through RCIA now) and am converting from the Evangelical/Protestantism. I understand that Jesus “had to die” in order for us to have communion with the Father and to receive the Holy Spirit. However, it seems that God had other means of salvation available. Can you please help me out?

***Excellent question! Thank you!

The answer lies in both “How God choose to Create us” "to make out of nothing] in His image… Exo. 1:26-28,] and precisely Why God made us in the specific way that He did.*
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***First we need to make clear that God did not make us “other gods.” We are blessed with some “Godly Traits” but in God they are “Perfected,” in us they far from being made perfect.

Isaiah 43: 7 and 21* explains why we were Created. v. 7: “every one who is called by my name, whom I created for my glory, whom I formed and made.” v. 21: “the people whom I formed for myself that they might declare my praise.” And Eph. 1: 12: “we who first hoped in Christ have been destined and appointed to live for the praise of his glory.” The Catholic Catechism would say" “we are Created to Know, Love and Serve God in this Worls so that we can spend all Eternity with Him.”
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Only humanity, in the vastness of Gods Created Universe are blessed to have a mind, intellect and freewill. The precise reasons for these gifts is to enable humanity to exercise their freewills in full accord with Gods plans for our personal salvation. In other words to “say YES! to God” and NO! to Satan!

God so “Loved the world that he gave us His Only Son!” Amen! Could he have done it another way? Of course. So why didn’t He?

Because God proved His love for us and desires [demands] that we return 'Love for Love!"

Exo. 20: 5 "for I the LORD your God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children to the third and the fourth generation of those who hate me, but showing steadfast love to thousands of those who love me and keep my commandments."

If you need further clairfication please let me know. Wecome Home! Ask us anything you’d like.

Love and prayers,
Pat