Why Protestant Bibles Are Smaller

  • Thread starter Thread starter RaisedCatholic
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
“Baruch was part of the OT canon in the 1st 3 centuries of the Church http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03267a.htm AND https://www.catholic.com/qa/baruch-is-there-just-sometimes-as-part-of-jeremiah

Either way, Baruch is part of the OT canon.”

I addressed this in my last post! Again, look at the Council of Rome. It lists Lamentations SEPARATE from Jeremiah, even though they were originally ONE book. It also lists ALL of other Deuteros BY NAME but not Baruch and the epistle. It also lists the twelve minor prophets BY NAME! And ECFs, even in the fourth century, listed Baruch and the epistle SEPARATELY. If they were included at Rome, they would have been listed separately like Lamentations and the others were. But they weren’t. And as far as the article about the canon in the first few centuries, the only time it mentions Baruch and the epistle is MUCH LATER in church history. Sorry but they weren’t in Rome or the other councils, or Jerome’s Vulgate. They weren’t added until four hundred years later. BTW, next time could you post the subsection in the article? People don’t want to read through a WHOLE LONG article!
The article was short. And it made the point well. Baruch was there. Just not as a separate book in the beginning. And Baruch was the scribe for Jeremiah, and probably wrote Jeremiah http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/02319c.htm
 
Last edited:
I will get you some quotes from early church fathers when I get some time
Not all early church fathers, including those from the West, embraced all of the Deuteros. In fact, it wouldn’t be until the fourth century before you find one that embraces all of them.
 
Just because you don’t like the answer doesn’t mean it hasn’t been done. And you are the only one getting dizzy on the so called “circular” argument. Open your heart RC, and get off the metaphorical merry-go-round. The church Jesus established did not, has not, will not err.
It’s circular because you believe the Catholic Church defined the canon, and you can only know this because the canon defines the Church as the pillar of truth. That is why it’s circular, not because I “don’t like the answer,” because you haven’t given an objective answer, but a subjective one you aren’t understanding.

Again, I don’t believe the Church Christ built “erred.” I don’t believe the Catholic Church “is” that Church anymore, since they don’t possess the OT canon Jesus embraced.
 
It is if you stop assuming Jesus church failed. Everything else fits quite well.
Again, I didn’t believe Jesus’ church “failed.” I don’t believe the Catholic Church “is” that Church.
 
If they are lost, as Jesus said they are, why then are you following THEM in their choice of books for the OT?
Strawman. I never said I am “following” them. I follow Jesus, and while Jesus rebuked them for the extra-biblical traditions, He never rebuked them for their OT canon. Rather, He acknowledged them.
 
The Deutero Canon is scripture.
Where does the NT - explicitly - refer to the Deuteros as “Scripture” (ie: referring to it as “Scripture,” “the Law & the Prophets,” “it is written,” “have you not read?” etc.) and where it’s not referring to an earlier quote from the Hebrew Bible? And simply quoting or alluding doesn’t count, since the NT also quotes & alludes to non-Deutero Apocryphal literature too.
 
When speaking to the Sadducees, he spoke to them on the terms of their canon (Matt. 22:23-32). I see no reason to believe he’s not simply speaking to the Pharisees on their own terms, where they include the prophets.
The Sadducees only acknowledged “the Law,” & was correcting them using “the Law.” But elsewhere when Jesus was addressing the Pharisees and the Sadducees, He acknowledged the book of the Prophet Jonah (Matthew 16:1-4, cf. Jonah 1:17), which the Pharisees accepted & the Sadducees rejected. By doing this, Jesus affirmed the canon of the Pharisees, while rejecting the Sadducees’ canon.
 
RaisedCatholic:
And [Irenaeus’] his OT list omitted most of the Deuteros and was closer to Protestants. I don’t think you want to use Irenaeus as an argument.
You’re not listening. I said Irenaeus omitted MOST of the Deuteros. Wisdom was in his NEW Testament list, not the Old. And I already mentioned Baruch & the additions to Daniel. This means Irenaeus omitted 1 & 2 Maccabees, Sirach, Judith, Tobit from his OT canon - and Wisdom too for that matter. That is why you can’t use ECF’s to defend the Catholic OT, because none of them espouse to the same Catholic OT canon until at least the fourth century, and even then, they don’t all agree. So, please pay attention to comment being made, before making a response.
St. Paul validating St. Luke’s writings by calling them “Scripture” which St. Paul states Scripture is inspired, or God-breathed).
"For the Scripture says, “YOU SHALL NOT MUZZLE THE OX WHILE HE IS THRESHING,” and “The laborer is worthy of his wages.” (1 Timothy 5:18)

The first part is from Deuteronomy, but the second part is from Luke 10:7, which means St. Paul calls St. Luke’s writings “Scripture.” You really didn’t know this?
As has been shown, the “lost sheep of Israel”, and Protestants, is no support.
Again, strawman. Jesus refuting the extra-biblical traditions of the Pharisees does not equate with Him refuting their OT canon. These are two completely different issues.
  1. Pharisees & Protestants espoused to the exact same OT canon (Catholic Answers, Jimmy Akin - senior apologist)
  2. St. Paul was a Pharisee (Acts 23), which means his OT canon would be the same as later Protestants.
  3. St. Paul referred to OT canon as “the Law & the Prophets” (Romans 3:21)
  4. When Jesus was addressing the OT canon to the Pharisees, He referred to it as “the Law & the Prophets” (Luke 16:14,16)
  5. Jesus acknowledged the OT canon of the Pharisees by referring to it as “Moses & the Prophets” & stated "They HAVE (have possession of) of the OT canon (Luke 16:29)
 
2 Thes 2 says
5 So then, brethren, stand firm and hold to the traditions which you were taught by us , * either by word of mouth or by letter.

How can you distort such a simple statement?
  1. tradition is plural. NOT SINGULAR, Do you see that? TRADITIONS plural
Not sure if you are quoting from the right passage, since 2 Thessalonian 2:5 states: "Do you not remember that while I was still with you, I was telling you these things? "

If you are referring to v.15 of the same chapter, I explained this already:

The ‘traditions’ which St. Paul says that were to be received ‘by word of mouth or by letter from us’ aren’t different traditions (ie: one tradition by mouth & a separate tradition by letter), but rather the same traditions that would ‘either’ be ‘taught, whether by word of mouth or by letter from us.’ These ‘traditions’ were what St. Paul had just written, because he begins this verse with ‘So then’ or ‘Therefore,’ indicating that the ‘traditions’ he was talking about were what he had just communicated to them in writing, which were about the Second Coming of Jesus (v.1-14).

Hope this helps.
Jesus affirms what He gives His authority to, (HIS Church) , and also what He teaches HIS Church . And He insists on perfect unity. Neither one of your sources, you mention, is in His Church. Ergo your sources have no authority in this matter
Agreed. But if the Catholic Church was the Church Jesus built, they would espouse to the same OT canon affirmed - the canon of the Pharisees. But they don’t, which means they aren’t.
 
Last edited:
The article was short. And it made the point well. Baruch was there. Just not as a separate book in the beginning. And Baruch was the scribe for Jeremiah, and probably wrote Jeremiah http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/02319c.htm
Baruch was indeed a scribe for Jeremiah, but he was not the author of the Deuterocanonical book of Baruch. While the article attempts to discredit “Non-Catholics” for dating it to after A.D. 70, no serious Protestant scholar would take that extremely late date seriously. The book of Baruch was written sometime between the close of the Hebrew Bible (after 400 B.C.) but before the NT era (in the B.C. era). Even the New American Bible (a Catholic translation) admits that its recording that the Feast of Booths could not have been celebrated during the time when Jeremiah & Baruch were alive, which indicates the book of Baruch was written centuries later, long after they died. BTW, did you read in the article you wrote that the epistle of Jeremiah was “not part of the book proper,” meaning it was not part of Baruch. This is also why ECF’s & even Doctors of the Church had Baruch & the epistle as separate writings from Jeremiah & Lamentations which were originally one book, not Baruch & the epistle too.
 
Last edited:
It’s circular because you believe the Catholic Church defined the canon, and you can only know this because the canon defines the Church as the pillar of truth.
Continuing to spew untruths is not becoming of a Christian. You have been told before and i will say it again. The church does not define itself as the pilar of truth BECAUSE it says so in scriptures. That would be your paradigm to define something because it says so in scripture. The church was/is the pilar way before this portion you reference was put to writ. The more you profess otherwise the more you show your ignorance.

Peace!!!
 
The church was/is the pilar way before this portion you reference was put to writ.
Please explain how you can be certain of this without: 1) using the “writ”, or 2) saying because the authority of the Catholic Church “says” it is. This is what I’m asking, which you have not answered. Simply repeating, “because the church is that pillar” is not an objective answer. Regardless, it can’t be since it embraces books that Jesus and His disciples and St. Paul didn’t.
 
Jesus never said anything about what made a complete canon (listing by book). What He did was, He quoted stories from OT literature, stories which also came from the 7 books you don’t have now, and they didn’t have then, that is (those who didn’t read from the Septuagint translation).
40.png
RaisedCatholic:
He also quoted from “stories” from OTHER books NOT found in the Deuteros too.
Again, we’re dealing with authority to declare what is canonical and what is not. You don’t seem to be understanding that point.
40.png
RaisedCatholic:
No offense, but you are beginning to repeat yourself. Besides, merely “quoting” isn’t the reason Protestants give for the NT acknowledging what is and is not OT Scripture, which I explained several times to you, which you don’t seem to be getting.
Protestants, have choice, like any one on the planet does, but have no authority in this matter to determine what is or what is not scripture.
 
If they are lost, as Jesus said they are, why then are you following THEM in their choice of books for the OT?
40.png
RaisedCatholic:
Strawman. I never said I am “following” them.
Sure you did. All you’ve done is defend their position. Ergo you follow THEM
40.png
RaisedCatholic:
while Jesus rebuked them for the extra-biblical traditions, He never rebuked them for their OT canon. Rather, He acknowledged them.
You have no idea what tradition means, in the way it is used.
 
40.png
steve-b:
The Deutero Canon is scripture.
Where does the NT - explicitly - refer to the Deuteros as “Scripture” (ie: referring to it as “Scripture,” “the Law & the Prophets,” “it is written,” “have you not read?” etc.) and where it’s not referring to an earlier quote from the Hebrew Bible? And simply quoting or alluding doesn’t count, since the NT also quotes & alludes to non-Deutero Apocryphal literature too.
Scripture itself, doesn’t give, nor has it ever given, a list of scriptural books.
 
40.png
adf417:
The church was/is the pilar way before this portion you reference was put to writ.
Please explain how you can be certain of this without: 1) using the “writ”, or 2) saying because the authority of the Catholic Church “says” it is. This is what I’m asking, which you have not answered. Simply repeating, “because the church is that pillar” is not an objective answer. Regardless, it can’t be since it embraces books that Jesus and His disciples and St. Paul didn’t.
The same exact way you are certain of the resurrection. And please don’t say your certainty is based on the fact it says so in Scripture. That would be a very poor faith. In fact it wouldn’t be faith at all.

Peace!!!
 
And [Irenaeus’] his OT list omitted most of the Deuteros and was closer to Protestants. I don’t think you want to use Irenaeus as an argument.
Irenaeus didn’t give a list of books.

However,

Irenaeus uses the writings from Wisdom, the History of Susannah, Bel and the Dragon [i.e., the deuterocanonical portions of Daniel], and Baruch
40.png
RaisedCatholic:
You’re not listening. I said Irenaeus omitted MOST of the Deuteros. Wisdom was in his NEW Testament list, not the Old.
Where exactly did Irenaeus say that the book of Wisdom is in the NT ?
40.png
RaisedCatholic:
And I already mentioned Baruch & the additions to Daniel. This means Irenaeus omitted 1 & 2 Maccabees, Sirach, Judith, Tobit from his OT canon - and Wisdom too for that matter.
It doesn’t mean anything of the kind
40.png
RaisedCatholic:
St. Paul validating St. Luke’s writings by calling them “Scripture” which St. Paul states Scripture is inspired, or God-breathed).

"For the Scripture says, “YOU SHALL NOT MUZZLE THE OX WHILE HE IS THRESHING,” and “The laborer is worthy of his wages.” (1 Timothy 5:18)

The first part is from Deuteronomy, but the second part is from Luke 10:7, which means St. Paul calls St. Luke’s writings “Scripture.” You really didn’t know this?
Re: Lk 10:7,
7 And remain in the same house, eating and drinking what they provide, for the laborer deserves his wages; do not go from house to house.

It’s been estimated that Luke was written a minimum of 20 yrs AFTER Paul was executed in Rome. So I ask you, how does Paul call something scripture, that hasn’t even been written yet?

Point being, someone has to define scripture. Scripture doesn’t define itself. Without the authority of the Catholic Church you have no clue as to what is scripture or not scripture.
As has been shown, the “lost sheep of Israel”, and Protestants, are no support for your position
Raised Catholic:
Again, strawman. Jesus refuting the extra-biblical traditions of the Pharisees does not equate with Him refuting their OT canon. These are two completely different issues.
it’s clear Protestants don’t understand the difference between “traditions” of man, vs “traditions” taught by the apostles and the Church.

AND

Jesus never gave any list of books, in what we call the OT. There was no official canon of the OT books while Jesus was in the flesh on this earth…NOR… while the apostles were alive. NOR did the apostles give us a list of NT books either. What part of that do you not understand?

AND

I’m also tired of the 3 consecutive reply limit messages, I get, just trying to keep up with your spamming. So Yeah, you guessed it, I don’t have time for this.

AND

Since this topic of the bible canon, was officially closed 1000+ yrs before Protestantism appeared on the scene, I leave you to your opinions and your spamming.

As for me, I’m moving on to other subjects.
 
The Sadducees only acknowledged “the Law,” & was correcting them using “the Law.”
That just summarizes what I said.
But elsewhere when Jesus was addressing the Pharisees and the Sadducees , He acknowledged the book of the Prophet Jonah (Matthew 16:1-4, cf. Jonah 1:17), which the Pharisees accepted & the Sadducees rejected.
Interestingly, Jesus doesn’t use “have you not read” or “you have the prophets” language here. He is instead referencing a past discussion He had with the scribes and Pharisees (Matt. 12:38-42). His comment is less “you have Jonah” and more, “I already explained Myself to many of you! Stop pestering Me!”

Granted, He obviously found Jonah canonical, but you seem to have missed the point. Just because Jesus cites part of one’s Scripture to them does not mean that He condoned their Scripture as the only Scripture. Taking such a stance would, in fact, even render Him as contradicting Himself, since He would have then declared the Sadducees’ canon as complete in one discussion but expand it to more Scripture elsewhere. This is the fault in your argument: You’ve read stuff into His comment that, if universally applied, would render Him contradicting Himself.
 
I don’t know why quoting something in the New Testament merits anything as to a books canonicity honestly. This happens throughout the Bible with books not considered scripture by Catholics(and besides Enoch, anyone for that matter). By the argument everyone giving to that if a book is canonical if alluded too, our Bibles should be much larger.

Book of Enoch (Jude 1:4, 1:6, 1:13, 1:14–15, 2 Peter 2:4; 3:13, and John 7:38 ).

Book of Jasher (2 Timothy 3:8, 2 Samuel 1:18, Joshua 10:13)

Life of Adam and Eve (2 Corinthians 11:14 “Satan as an angel of light”, 12:2 “Third Heaven”)

The Assumption of Moses (2 Timothy 3:8, Jude 9 “Michael… body of Moses”)

Martyrdom of Isaiah (Hebrews 11:37 “they were sawn in two”)

Also, Paul cites Pagans. Is anyone going to argue because of this pagan writings should be scripture?

Menander, Thais 218 (1 Cor. 15:33)

Epimenides, de Oraculis, (Titus 1:12-13, where Paul introduces Epimenides as “a prophet of the Cretans,”

Aratus, Phaenomena 5 (Acts 17:28, where Paul refers to the words of “some of your own poets”)

All I’m pointing out here is that just because someone cites or alludes to another writing does not mean that writing must also be scripture.
 
Last edited:
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top