Is 100 AD arbitrary… Answer Yest
Why then did I choose 100 AD. Answer… The reason which i choose 100 AD is that it is a nice round number which roughtly correlates to the changes of the Catholic Church during the decades affer the death of the first generation of Christianity. It also is fairly close to the Rise of St Ignasious which is the, in my opinion, the start of a new wave of Christianity. It is the start of the 2nd Century which would include Tertullian, and Justin Martyr and coincides with the increase in the office of Bishop which can be evidenced by 1 Timothy (writted ca 100-120 AD). It is also the centruy in which the orthodox began.
This is absurd.
The Orthodox were united to Catholicism until 1054. They did not separate in the second century.
The office of the Bishop evidenced in 1Tim and elsewhere is part of the Apostolic Teaching that continues to be shared by the Catholics and Orthodox to this day!
How do you account for the fact that Ignatius thought he was part of the Church founded by Christ, and no one disputed this fact with Him?
I can see why you would need to create such a myth, however, since Iggy is clearly Catholic, as are Justin Martyr and Tertullian.
As for Theology coming from Christ himself…
"Though [the Canonical Gospels] are presented as historical narratives, their origins are complex and their reliability variable…then,in the decades of the sixties, with the progressive elimination of the first generation of Christians… provided an urgent incentive to record Jesus’s teachings in imperishable shape.
Mark, from the circle of Peter, first created the Gospel as a literary form… his problems were not only those of an unpracticed writer but also those of an amateur theologian trying to transmit a complex message which he recieved from the far from lucid Peter. Hence he often does not try to solve the problem of comprehensibility.
What he is basically saying is that God failed to preserve His Word both in the Church and in writing. The Gospels cannot be inspired and inerrant, since they were written by fallible men.
This is not consistent with what the Catholic Church teaches and believes.
Do you think finding a “Roman Catholic historian” who does not believe in the Catholic faith changes anything? This author’s opinion that God is unable to preserve His Word does not change the fact that Jesus gave the Truth to His One Body, the Church.
Matthew and Luke,quite independently, produced their own narratives… Each had Mark to work from, though probably in carelessly copied form; and also had anouther source …Q
You might want to look into this “other source”.
John has no demonstrable connection to the synoptics… It is, however, more of a theological treatise than a historical narrative…there is evidence of tampering in the earliest manuscripts
This is an excellent example of horse hockey.
None of this would matter much if the central doctrine and teaching of Jesus emerged strongly, consistently and coherently form all the canonical sources… yet even in [the Passion] there are major obscurities an apparent contrdictions…
Again, the fact that they are synoptic does NOT equate to “major obscurities” or contradictions. The fact that eyewitnesses see and remember things differently, especially traumatic events, does not invalidate the different accounts.
It is thus misleading to speak of apostolic age and equally misleading to speak of a primative pentacostal Church and Faith. The last point is important because it implies Jesus left a Norm, in terms of doctrine, message, and organization, from which the Church subsequently departed. There was never a norm… If the famous Petrine text in Matthew is genuine and means what it is alleged to mean Peter was a very unsteady rock on which to found a Church. He did not exercise powers of leadership and seems to have allowed himself to be disposed by James an other members of Jesus’s family, who had played no part in the origional mission."
“A History of Christianity” - Roman Catholic Historian Paul Johnson pg 24-33
What can I say? The man has fallen from the faith, if indeed he ever had any. I suggest that you start with the original doctuments, Mberg, and what the Church says about herself, rather than the prattling of a person who no longer espouses the faith.
If you are going to use an apostate Catholic to justify your position, then you are in very poor shape spiritually.
The point is that there was no unified organized Church in the years before roughly 100 AD and the Catholic Church cannot claim to be the pure distillation of truth unless it proves that it was so dictated by Christ.
Such a statement is contradicted by the NT itself, which invalidates it immediately. Even your apostate “Catholic historian” is in agreement that the NT documents represent 1st century reality.
I want proof before 100 AD, before the Church claimed to be the source of truth to justify that it could make that claim
Like I said, it would behoove you to start with the NT. Reading it, you will find that what your “historian” says is false.