but lost verses, addition, replacement, anonymous writers, textual variants in the core of your beliefs, errors,…
something you still have to prove and which deserves another thread. Now refering to Bruce Metzger that Muslims love to quote, he says:
Still, the high number of “variants,” or differences among manuscripts, was troubling. I had seen estimates as high as two hundred thousand of them. However, Metzger downplayed the significance of that figure.
“The number sounds big, but it’s a bit misleading because of the way variants are counted,” he said. He explained that if a single word is misspelled in two thousand manuscripts, that’s counted as two thousand variants.
I keyed in on the most important issue. “How many doctrines of the church are in jeopardy because of variants?”
"I don’t know of any doctrine that is in jeopardy," he responded confidently.
So the variations, when they occur, tend to be minor rather than substantive?"
“Yes, yes, that’s correct, and scholars work very carefully to try to resolve them by getting back to the original meaning.
The more significant variations do not overthrow any doctrine of the church. Any good Bible will have notes that will alert the reader to variant readings of any consequence. But, again, these are rare.” (Strobel, pp. 82-85)
If we compare the present state of the New Testament text with that of any other ancient writing, we must… declare it to be marvelously correct. Such has been the care with which the New Testament has been copied- a care which has doubtless grown out of true reverence for its holy words… The New Testament [is] unrivaled among ancient writings in the purity of its text as actually transmitted and kept in use. (Strobel, p. 91)
refering to Justin and Chrysostom?
the only addition am aware of is the Johannine comma which i understand was written on the margin as a note which resulted in being written later as scripture, and when refering to the original document where it is not, it was removed. This addition does not change any doctrine so it bears little consequence. Of course you might consider it a corruption for the sole reason that it was “added”, but this is based on your belief in the “munzal” Quran,a belief alien to us since we believe in the preservation of the message and this addition does not compromise neither scripture not the church belief.
of what?
according to 20th century critics? The writings of men such as Polycarp, Clement of Rome, Irenaeus, Tertullian ecc provide an unbroken chain of evidence for the apostolicity and historical veracity of the NT. To say that the early Christians and apostles’ disciples who were eyewitnesses to either Jesus or His apostles did not know the gospel authors is hilarious. Irenaeus for example mentioned there are only 4 gospels according to John, Matthew, Luke and Mark. What you are refering to is called “textual” criticism, the same textual criticism that led some to say the Medina and Meccan chapters were written by different people, which is based on “textual” analysis rather than history.
You see these are their own views?
The Church does not teach what both of them claimed so either they were wrong (Infallibility in concensus, not as individials) or as our Catholic link says : “a statement that rests on no positive evidence” , or they could be refering to the translations . When Christians began to cite the Alexandrian version in proof of their doctrines, the Jews began to question its accuracy so mutual recriminations are reflected in Justin’s Dialogue with Trypho. Justin says: “They dare to assert that the interpretation produced by your seventy elders under Ptolemy of Egypt is in some points inaccurate.” Jews interpreted “virgin” in Isaiah 7:14 as “young woman” . Justin retaliates by charging the Jews with deliberate excision of passages favorable to Christianity.
And yes i talk about chaos in Islam because it is a chaos surrounding this “preseved” book with different recitations, some being burnt, and the remaning have differences, in addition to God knows how many abrogates and forgotten suras, all in the name of “not one letter was changed”. The canonicity of the OT has nothing to do with abrogations still in Quran, forgotten verses, abrogated chapters not in the Quran and effaced verses as a test.
So if Muslims in Mecca were really proven false when the Arabs refuted the Sura like it challenge, why did they continue on and die for a false belief?
you still have not given me any evidence that the Arabs tried and failed, and you did not tell me who was the judge.
I read what you said about the translation, but I couldn’t understand your point, as for the Bible verse, could you tell me where is it?
my point was that the English translation says that the ocean waves refer to the depth of the ocean when the Arabic words show the ocean waves refer to the sea, not its depth.
Your translation says: world of darkness similar to that found in
the depth of an ocean ***where ***billowy waves are superimposed upon billowy waves.
this translation gives the impression that billowy waves are in the depth of the ocean.
The Arabic aya says: أَوْ كَظُلُمَاتٍ فِي بَحْرٍ لُّجِّيٍّ **يَغْشَاهُ **مَوْجٌ مِّن فَوْقِهِ مَوْجٌ مِّن فَوْقِهِ سَحَابٌ ظُلُمَاتٌ بَعْضُهَا فَوْقَ بَعْضٍ إِذَآ أَخْرَجَ يَدَهُ لَمْ يَكَدْ يَرَاهَا وَمَن لَّمْ يَجْعَلِ ٱللَّهُ لَهُ نُوراً فَمَا لَهُ مِن نُورٍ }
the boldened part refers to the sea, not its depth, because the verb used is masculin whereas “its depth” in Arabic is feminine plural.
As to the Biblical verse, it is Psalm 107-25