L
losh14
Guest
Most of you are familiar with his writings - “The Secret of Mary” and “True Devotion to the Blessed Virgin” and others like it. I personally have much difficulty with them, but that aside i want to ask an open-minded question - what are the reasons why I should accept his writings? I ask this as an open question and will try to refrain from arguing except to understand more fully the reasons.
To my knowledge, he received no vision, no apparition, and makes no note of special revelation to guide his writings. Yet he calls many of them things that were kept secret until the time of his writing in the 17th century. Some of what he writes builds upon earlier Marian saints, but some is certainly new writing if not new teaching.
This is distinct because other Marian devotions have known sources - the Rosary was received from an apparition, the cloak of Juan Diego is evidence of Guadalupe - but Montfort reveals secrets without giving reason as to their origin - did he derive them on his own or pass on what was given him?
Clearly his writings have been trusted in the time since by no less than John Paul II, but why are they deemed trustworthy?
Also, while Montfort’s writings have received imprimatur, these are dated in the 20th century. Are these only most recent imprimatur for each subsequent edition or translation, or did his writings not receive (or were not submitted for) the imprimatur until the 20th century?
To my knowledge, he received no vision, no apparition, and makes no note of special revelation to guide his writings. Yet he calls many of them things that were kept secret until the time of his writing in the 17th century. Some of what he writes builds upon earlier Marian saints, but some is certainly new writing if not new teaching.
This is distinct because other Marian devotions have known sources - the Rosary was received from an apparition, the cloak of Juan Diego is evidence of Guadalupe - but Montfort reveals secrets without giving reason as to their origin - did he derive them on his own or pass on what was given him?
Clearly his writings have been trusted in the time since by no less than John Paul II, but why are they deemed trustworthy?
Also, while Montfort’s writings have received imprimatur, these are dated in the 20th century. Are these only most recent imprimatur for each subsequent edition or translation, or did his writings not receive (or were not submitted for) the imprimatur until the 20th century?