I never get the logic of this argument. The Vatican I definition of the papacy certainly did not stop Latins from schism in the West. It hasn’t stopped the modernist rejection of that authority after Vatican II either. What logic says that if certain people reject something it must be false? Does the doctrine have a magic power to it that stops people from rejecting and disobeying unlike all other, even more basic, doctrines?
Did the early rejections of the Trinitarian formulations and resulting schisms mean that it could not have been the faith or belief of the church? Belief in the authority of the church to teach definitevely on matters of faith and its visible unity did not stop Martin Luther and the other Reformers from that enourmous schism- They simply rejected it. Doesn’t mean the doctrines had been missing.

Similarly, the rejection of Christ by the great majority of Jews doesn’t mean that Christ’s claims were not part of the revelation and prophecies of God from the OT.
Again, I never get this argument people like to bring up only for the papacy when it clearly applies nowhere else- I believe its special pleading. Why should the doctrine on the papacy be the only one that must be proven in this fashion when the others don’t? On what basis do we get this special little requirement that applies only to the teaching on the papacy when it would fail even for our most basic beliefs?