Why should the Roman Catholic Church be made to allow married priests when other Catholic Churches already do?

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If we do allowed married priests, we should look to our Eastern Rite Catholic brothers and sisters to learn how this can be done, rather than to Protestant churches.
The main difference between Catholic and Protestant congregations is that Protestant congregations pony up much more money than Catholics do, and this has been well documented. Another point is that Eastern Rite Catholics, at least the various parishes I’ve seen in my area, don’t have the Latin Rite equivalent of Daily Mass. Their Divine Liturgies are usually only once on a Sunday. The rest of the week, the parish is usually closed. There are no easy answers and I agree that it needs to be well studied.
 
There’s a bit of misinformation going around in this thread. Eastern Bishops are not permitted to be married either. In both traditions, although some people nowadays like to sugar coat it with the “married to God” reasoning, the real reason is that it stems from Byzantine/Middle Aged corruption. Back then, most bishops came from the noble/royal classes and were appointed by the secular authorities. A nobleman simply had two options in life - either become a bishop, or marry into some other royal family line. If Bishops were allowed to do both, you can see where this would be majorly problematic for the church, and the measure that the church had to take in order to remain independent and free from corruption was to ban married clergy.

The reason why there’s never been very much uproar about it in the East, is because they enforced it a little diferently. Rather than simply banning it all clergy, they decided that only Monks can be ordained Bishops, for whom it wouldn’t be a problem.
 
There’s a bit of misinformation going around in this thread. Eastern Bishops are not permitted to be married either.
I’m confused. I re-read the thread and I saw no reference to married bishops.
 
The main difference between Catholic and Protestant congregations is that Protestant congregations pony up much more money than Catholics do, and this has been well documented. Another point is that Eastern Rite Catholics, at least the various parishes I’ve seen in my area, don’t have the Latin Rite equivalent of Daily Mass. Their Divine Liturgies are usually only once on a Sunday. The rest of the week, the parish is usually closed. There are no easy answers and I agree that it needs to be well studied.
The statement about Protestant communities ponying up more money is true. Of course, there’s a few reasons for that. One is that some (I don’t know the percentage) Protestant communities actually mandate that their members tithe - and enforce it. Seriously - a friend I had several years ago (she was a convert from Islam to Protestant Christianity) told me that, when she first joined her community, people from her community came over to her, asked to see how much money she made, so that they could enforce tithing regulations.
 
I’m confused. I re-read the thread and I saw no reference to married bishops.
Back when the rules wered made, Bishop celibacy was the problem, not the clergy in general, since they had no geopolitically relevant family relations. The Catholic Church solved the problem by applying a carpet ban on married clergy of all ranks. The Eastern Churches on the other hand, used a somewhat more ingenius plan to solve the problem - they decided that only monks could become bishops, so the celibacy wouldn’t be an issue in the first place
 
The romam rite should allow married priests too. Marriage is everyones birthright.
Clerical celibacy is ridiculous. Our first pope was married for crying out loud.
For those of you who oppose it, I know I know. Sex within marriage IS a grave sin :rolleyes:
But God is merciful 😉
 
someperson555 #27
The romam rite should allow married priests too. Marriage is everyones birthright.
Clerical celibacy is ridiculous. Our first pope was married for crying out loud.
No real Catholic would so ridicule Christ, Our Saviour, for when St. Peter asked Our Lord, “What about us? We left all we had to follow you.” The Divine Master answered: “I tell you solemnly, there is no one who has left house, wife, brothers, parents or children for the sake of the kingdom of God, who will not be given repayment many times over in this present time and, in the world to come, eternal life” (Lk 18:28-30, cf. Mt 19:27-30; Mk 10:20-21).

Among the Apostles, only Saint Peter is known to have been married because his mother-in-law is mentioned in the Gospels, but no mention is made of his wife or children. Tradition tells us that he was a widower who was caring for his wife’s aged mother. Some of the others might have been married, but there is no indication of this and it is a clear that they left everything, including their families, to follow Christ.

From the beginning, continence was required for priest and bishop – priestly celibacy is an Apostolic norm.
 
@abu

You also must realize that there is a difference between rules that are infallible and rules thatare not. The church CAN and DID make mistakes in the past. You see people like you think that the way the church is in its entirety at any given time is the most correct.
Not every word from every priest or bishop is infallible. It is therefore all right to disagree with the church on non dogmatic matters.
Its too bad that theres such a neurosis about sex in the church. First it was from the Gnostic influence and then the victorian influence. Priests cannot be married to the church. The church defines marriage as between one man and one woman. So the church seems to be promoting unconventional marriage when pro celibacy advocates claim that " a priest is married to the church" :cool: both priests and bishops should be able to have sex with their wives.
Priestly continence was never required from the beginning. You are misrepresenting church history!

Lol every time I debate a Catholic who disagrees with married priests they whip out that verse. Or the versr from Paul which says " its better for a man not to marry".
The problem is that in both cases you ignore context. Jesus was not talking about priests. He was talking about ascetics like monks or nuns. You have to understand that a monk’s spiritual path is vastly different from a priests.
The other reason you are wrong is because the church is not sola scripture. There is nothing in the bible about contraception yet you think its wrong any way (but that’s a different debate for a different time)
Paul also says :" let every man Have his own wife" in the old testament it says that marriage

Is a very honorable thing.
 
someperson555 #30
Priestly continence was never required from the beginning. You are misrepresenting church history!
Totally false.

The reality is that priestly continence is an Apostolic Norm. From the beginning, continence was required for priest and bishop – for Early Church Tradition the most important studies are: Apostolic Origins of Priestly Celibacy, by Fr. Christian Cochini, S.J.(Ignatius, San Francisco, 1990); The Case for Clerical Celibacy, by Alfons Maria Cardinal Stickler (Ignatius, San Francisco, 1995); Celibacy in the Early Church, by Fr. Stefan Heid, (Ignatius, San Francisco, 2000).

There is no question that Priestly continence was the norm from the beginning and there were no legitimate exceptions.
Here is more testimony to the truth:
Fr. George William Rutler, in an article entitled *A Consistent theology of clerical celibacy *(Homiletic & Pastoral Review, Feb. 1989), notes that “Virginity and celibacy were not synonymous in the original ecclesiastical institution of celibacy. Those clerics whose marriages were recognized by the Church, and they were many, were expected to abstain from conjugal union after ordination. The new archeology shows that this was the case for all the Eastern Churches in the earliest centuries, and in a mitigated form later. In the Latin Church this was the clear rule throughout the first millenium, culminating in the laws of the Gregorian reform, especially as found in the First Lateran Council of 1123, and the Second Lateran Council of 1139…The discipline of the Second Lateran Council explicitly forbidding marriage after ordination was not an innovation in the observance of continence. Its prohibition of clerical marriage was only a regulation ensuring that the apostolic norm of abstinence would be better observed.”

Priestly Celibacy and Its Roots in Christ … Interview with Fr McGovern
National Catholic REGISTER, May 19-25, 2002

“Recent scholarship on the history of celibacy in both the Easter and Western Church has shown that there is a considerable body of evidence in favour of the argument that priestly celibacy is of apostolic origin, based on Christ’s invitation to the Twelve to leave all things and follow him (cf. Mt 19:29). [5] Indeed, John Paul II points out in his 1979 Holy Thursday Letter to Priests that celibacy is so closely linked to the language of the Gospel that it refers back to the teaching of Christ and to apostolic tradition.”
There is nothing in the bible about contraception yet you think its wrong any way (but that’s a different debate for a different time)
False.

We do know for certain that God is against contraception. God killed Onan for contraception (Gen 38:8-10)
We know for certain that Christ is the Son of God.
We know for certain that Christ established His Church with His authority and power to teach only truth.
We know for certain that Christ gave Peter primacy and infallibility to teach on faith and morals, protected by the Holy Spirit from error.
We know that “opinions”, wishes, desires, prejudices, feelings, have no place against truth.
We know that the definitions against every form of contraception are infallible in *Casti Connubii *(Pius XI, 1930), and *Humanae Vitae *(Paul VI, 1968).
We know the state of dissenters: Christ, Himself, warned “if he refuses to hear even the Church let him be like the heathen and a publican.” (Mt 18:17)
 
Its incredibly difficult to obtain a canonical rite change if there are Roman parishes you could go to, and you can’t be ordained an Eastern priest without being Eastern rite.
I’ve always been puzzled by this. If the eastern rite churches are in full communion with Rome why is it a big deal to change from one rite to another? I just don’t get why this is not just a personal decision that any Catholic couldn’t make on their own.

Why in the world would any rite have a problem letting one of their members go, or accepting one another from another rite, when they are all part of the same "family?.

I’m not looking for quotes from Canon law, I know what it says. I just want to know why the law is there in the first place.
 
The romam rite should allow married priests too. Marriage is everyones birthright.
Clerical celibacy is ridiculous. Our first pope was married for crying out loud.
For those of you who oppose it, I know I know. Sex within marriage IS a grave sin :rolleyes:
But God is merciful 😉
This is true. Peter was indeed married but there is no information as to whether he had kids or if his wife died etc! Was he married ‘before’ he became Apostle?

One question that has come to my mind. In our Diocese they are very much crying out for priests! Would that change if married men were allowed to become a Catholic Priest? Would they have more people wanting to become Catholic priests if they allowed them to be married?
 
The romam rite should allow married priests too. Marriage is everyones birthright.
Clerical celibacy is ridiculous. Our first pope was married for crying out loud.
For those of you who oppose it, I know I know. Sex within marriage IS a grave sin :rolleyes:
But God is merciful 😉
Highly unlikely that our first pope was married. The best guess, and it is a very good guess, is that Peter was widowed. That is certainly implied by the Gospel story of his mother-in-law’s sickness.
 
Highly unlikely that our first pope was married. The best guess, and it is a very good guess, is that Peter was widowed. That is certainly implied by the Gospel story of his mother-in-law’s sickness.
It doesn’t state he was widowed! You are right, that would be a guess! Mother-in-laws get sick all the time! Doesn’t mean they all die!!
 
It doesn’t state he was widowed! You are right, that would be a guess! Mother-in-laws get sick all the time! Doesn’t mean they all die!!
True, but when they get sick, their daughters tend to help out around the house – if Peter wasn’t a widower, then at the very least he had one heck of a winner of a wife who would let her own mom serve dinner right after miraculously coming off a nasty illness… 😉
 
True, but when they get sick, their daughters tend to help out around the house – if Peter wasn’t a widower, then at the very least he had one heck of a winner of a wife who would let her own mom serve dinner right after miraculously coming off a nasty illness… 😉
That is guess work too. Didn’t Jesus heal Peters mother-in-law? So, Jesus was the centre of attention. Maybe there was no need to mention Peters wife.
 
That is guess work too. Didn’t Jesus heal Peters mother-in-law?
Next time you come off a nasty cold – let alone a life-threatening illness – let’s see if your loved ones expect you to cater a dinner for them… or even allow you to do so.
Maybe there was no need to mention Peters wife.
If she were there, then the culture of the day would have had her do the serving, not her mom, especially if her mom had been deathly ill. You can call it ‘guess work’, if you like. Looks more like ‘common sense’, though… 😉
 
I’ve always been puzzled by this. If the eastern rite churches are in full communion with Rome why is it a big deal to change from one rite to another? I just don’t get why this is not just a personal decision that any Catholic couldn’t make on their own.

Why in the world would any rite have a problem letting one of their members go, or accepting one another from another rite, when they are all part of the same "family?.

I’m not looking for quotes from Canon law, I know what it says. I just want to know why the law is there in the first place.
Good point. I don’t understand this either. Why is it an issue if one moves from one Rite to another when we are all in full communion with Rome?
 
Next time you come off a nasty cold – let alone a life-threatening illness – let’s see if your loved ones expect you to cater a dinner for them… or even allow you to do so.

If she were there, then the culture of the day would have had her do the serving, not her mom, especially if her mom had been deathly ill. You can call it ‘guess work’, if you like. Looks more like ‘common sense’, though… 😉
So, when Jesus cured someone he doesnt cure them 100%?

Wouldnt Peters mother-in-law have wanted to cater for everyone as a massive thank you for just healing her?
 
Its too bad that theres such a neurosis about sex in the church
Really?? Even in spite of JP II’s praise of conjugal love?

What I find too bad is that there is generally such ignorance surrounding the spiritual benefits of celibacy for one who has opted such a sacrificial life as that of a priest; that celibacy can aid a heightened awareness of the supernatural and things divine. But I do understand that an emptying of self in this manner is a contradiction to a culture which considers sex the most necessary and ultimate experience ever – and that the accumulated wisdom and writings of the spiritual masters do not hold much water in the post-modern world.
 
Wouldnt Peters mother-in-law have wanted to cater for everyone as a massive thank you for just healing her?
Wouldn’t her daughter – if she were alive and present – want her to rest, since she had just been healed?

The issue wasn’t whether there was hospitality and food provided – there was! – but simply the question of who was serving it! “Mom, you’ve had a rough day; just sit down and let me handle it” is what a good daughter – if she were alive – would say… 😉
 
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