Why so different?

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bauerice

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In most versions, Matt 5:32 mentions adultetry/unchastity/fornication. Yet in the RNAB and NJB it’s more about an unlawful union. I am confused.

But I say to you, that whosoever shall put away his wife, excepting for the cause of fornication, maketh her to commit adultery: and he that shall marry her that is put away, committeth adultery. (Douay-Rheims Version)
But I say this to you: everyone who divorces his wife, except for the case of fornication, makes her an adulteress; and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery
(The Jerusalem Bible 1966)
What I say to you is: everyone who divorces his wife-lewd conduct is a separate case- forces her to commit adultery. The man who marries a divorced woman likewise commits adultery. (NAB 1970)
But I say to you that every one who divorces his wife, except on the grounds of unchastely makes her an adulteress; and whoever marries an divorced woman commits adultery. (RSV-2CE)
But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery. (King James Version)
but I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except for the reason of unchastity, makes her commit adultery; and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.
(New American Standard Version)
But I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except on the ground of sexual immorality, makes her commit adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery. (English Standard Version)

As opposed to

But I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) causes her to commit adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.
(NAB revised NT)
But I say this to you, everyone who divorces his wife, except for the case of an illicit marriage, makes her an adulteress; and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery (New Jerusalem Bible 1985)
 
The New Testament was written in Greek. The word used in Matthew 5:32 is porneia. What you are seeing in the English versions is a disagreement between translators of what porneia meant as Matthew was using it, and thus what would be the best way to translate it.
 
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