Source, please. If they are Lutheran they read the Foma of Concord, which I’ve quoted.Different Lutherans have different interpretations of Sola Scriptura, too.
Jon
Source, please. If they are Lutheran they read the Foma of Concord, which I’ve quoted.Different Lutherans have different interpretations of Sola Scriptura, too.
Even for Catholics, the ECFs are not infallible.Problem with SS advocates is that they do not take the words of Scripture and the church fathers at face value. They want Scripture and the ECF’s to say what they want it to say.
Source, please. If they are Lutheran they read the Foma of Concord, which I’ve quoted.
Jon
Well, he had authority for about 2 weeks. Until other Protestants decided “they” had the truth, and not Luther.They sure don’t. BTW, Luther had no particular authority in the early Evangelical churches. The question is, who is His authority?
We restore unity by getting rid of denominatinoalism and realizing that Christ founded ONE Church. Unity doesn’t come about by “being nice” and “dialogue.” Unity comes about by actually being unified.I agree, but that was 500 years ago. The question for us today, is what do we do to restore unity in His Church? How do we dialogue with one another? More importantly, how do our leaders dialogue with one another.
No, it was not in reference to SS, Nicea … you’re absolutely right. I don’t think SS was on anyone’s mind at that time. However, in mentioning it as he did, Luke showed that in those days it was considered “best practice” to validate other teaching – even Apostolic teaching – by using the authority of Scripture. This should not be confused with SS. It is merely one of the underlying principles on which SS was based.The above passage was not written in reference to SS. St.Paul was not holding them to the test of SS.
The above is another verse SS try to use tp prove SS.
Agreed, and no, rest assured I do not. Let me ask you this; do you consider Old Catholics Catholic, even though they are not in communion with the bishop of Rome? I understand they ordain women, or some of them do. Are they Catholic even though they do not follow the Caholic Catechism? Do you see my point?For instance, the ELCA is very liberal. I assume (HOPE) that you don’t agree with much of their theology and agree they’re very liberal. Many accept gay marriage, women clergy, low views of Scripture (yet still affirming a twisted view of Sola Scriptura), etc etc. Yet they accept the Formula of Concord.
- The Formula of Concord isn’t infallible
- The Formula of Concord isn’t in Scripture (or Sacred Tradition)
- Different people can interpret the Formula of Concord in different ways
- There is no authority to declare whos interpretation of the Formula of Concord is correct.
"This church accepts the other confessional writings in the Book of Concord, namely, the Apology of the Augsburg Confession, the Smalcald Articles and the Treatise, the Small Catechism, the Large Catechism, and the Formula of Concord, as further valid interpretations of the faith of the Church. "
elca.org/What-We-Believe/Statements-of-Belief/ELCA-Confession-of-Faith.aspx
Please anwer the following:
Scripture stood as the single authoritative standard
One more time: WHEN,WHERE and BY WHOSE authority was the above ever declared to be the standard?
ONE MORE TIME … I am unaware that there was ever any authoritative declaration.
However, what is known is that the authority of Scripture to decide doctrine was commonly practised as the standard by church leaders and teachers, and if nothing else, the rest of the church gave tacit approval because it never challenged the practice – that is, until the reformers raised the issue of the church having abandoned the practice. The reformers wanted the church to return to this practice, and the church finally had to take a stand.
Nicea325;10763348:
single authoritative standardPlease anwer the following:
Scripture stood as the
One more time: WHEN,WHERE and BY WHOSE authority was the above ever declared to be the standard?
ONE MORE TIME … I am unaware that there was ever any authoritative declaration.
and teachers, and if nothing else, because it never challenged the practice -
So, would those Church leaders be Catholic Bishops and Priests?However, what is known is that the authority of Scripture to decide doctrine was commonly practised as the standard by church leaders
So, would that then include the Oriental Orthodox, Eastern Orthodox and all Latin Catholics…or are you speaking of another Church?the rest of the church gave tacit approval
and you would agree that the reformers/deformers were all either Catholic priests or Catholics? Having agreed to this what authority did they have to reform anything?
- that is, until the reformers raised the issue of the church having abandoned the practice.
and the reformer/deformers having done so immediately decided that there would be Anglican, Lutheran, Presbyterian doctrines based on one understanding of Scripture having discarded Scripture and invented the Protocanonicals that were never abandoned, since there was no such thing as a Protocanonical until the reformer/deformers invented it. Is that correct?The reformers wanted the church to return to this practice, and the church finally had to take a stand.
Blessings Jon!Even for Catholics, the ECFs are not infallible.
Jon
Nicea325;10763348:
single authoritative standardPlease anwer the following:
Scripture stood as the
One more time: WHEN,WHERE and BY WHOSE authority was the above ever declared to be the standard?
ONE MORE TIME … I am unaware that there was ever any authoritative declaration.
However, what is known is that the authority of Scripture to decide doctrine was commonly practised as the standard by church leaders and teachers, and if nothing else, ***the rest of the church gave tacit approval because it never challenged the practice ***-- that is, until the reformers raised the issue of the church having abandoned the practice. The reformers wanted the church to return to this practice, and the church finally had to take a stand.
It gave approval? Really? Where is such support for this approval? I am sorry,but I have come to the conclusion you really lack a deep understanding of the early church, history of Scripture and doctrines. No offense, but you make wild assumptions and conclusions with nothing to support your statements. Case in point, you just said another:
*the rest of the church gave tacit approval because it never challenged the practice *
It did? When and where was this practice approved? Name the bishops who approved this?
So it is obvious, it is pure conjecture since you lack any authentic support from any primary sources to support your claims:
Scripture was “the” single authoritative standard
So what certitude do you even have that such was “the” standard for the early church? You don’t! Correct? So in essence, you just want to re-write history?
Simka:No, it was not in reference to SS, Nicea … you’re absolutely right. I don’t think SS was on anyone’s mind at that time. However, in mentioning it as he did, Luke showed that in those days it was considered “best practice” to validate other teaching – even Apostolic teaching – by using the authority of Scripture. This should not be confused with SS. It is merely one of the underlying principles on which SS was based.
I don’t know about “authority to say” but let me see if I can address your concerns.I’m just trying to understand who do you believe had the authority to say what was “Scripture” in the early church…and why?
No, Pork, not so. I’m sorry if I have given you that impression. Let me clarify.Somehow you’ve come to believe that the Catholic Church followed Sola Scriptura…
Perhaps so … but that does not contest the Authority of Scripture in doctrinal matters. In sorting out non-doctrinal issues, tradition provided valuable insight and assistance in determining what Scripture meant by what it said. Even today, when there is difficulty or disagreement over the interpretation of Scripture, one of the tools for resolving the issue is an understanding of what the church has believed over the past 2000 years. This is fully consistent with the authority of Scripture and the later doctrine of SS.As examples, is Irenaeus not referring to Tradition to decide the truth between two competing Scriptures?
That’s not the way I read it, but let’s look at Tertullian in a subsequent post.Tertullian again using Tradition to disprove the heretics.
No, Simka. There was no established canon of the OT prior to the Church.First, I don’t think we can overlook the fact that the vast majority of what we accept as Scripture today was already recognized as the Word of God before Jesus came to earth.
Could you show us where he did this? Which books did he declare inspired and which ones did he reject?We call it the Old Testament. Jesus Himself ratified the Jewish Scriptures.
YESS!!! This is huge, Simka!Later, as his appointed messengers, Jesus’ Apostles recognized in one another the Inspiration of God. Their letters later circulated among the church congregations, and they were recognized by the church as the Inspired Word of God (i.e. Scripture). By whose authority? I suspect the answer you’re looking for is “the Apostles” but that’s not so. It was God’s authority. God determined (by His Inspiration) what would be in Scripture, and in due course the Catholic Church discovered what God had decided. I can’t offer you any more insight than that as to methodology.
That is what it sounds like…YESS!!! This is huge, Simka!
So what you are proclaiming is that you base your understanding of God’s Word not on Scripture, but on the authority of the Church.
And it necessarily means that you accept that the charism of infallibility has been given to the Catholic Church, at least as it applies to discerning the canon of the NT.
Perhaps he is talking about ratifying it via His church?Could you show us where he did this? Which books did he declare inspired and which ones did he reject?
pablope;10762635:
and examined the Scriptures every day to see if what Paul said was true. Acts 17:11Why was it that the Bereans were held in such high esteem?
Now the Berean Jews were of more noble character than those in Thessalonica, for they received the message with great eagerness
Ah…another misreading and misinterpretation…Simka.
Read the passage properly:
Look at the bolded part…their character was termed as being more noble compared to others…because they were more open, and were eager to receive the message from Paul, not because they read the Bible.
Besides…if you are going to copy the Bereans…you should just read the OT…which scripture is referred here…not the whole Bible or the NT.
And when they searched scriptures…they were given the interpration key by Paul…and did not read it on their own interpretation.
Thanx, Nicea … I appreciate your candor. It’s too bad we can’t have a face-to-face chat. I think we’d resolve a lot of misunderstandings. It’s hard – for me, at least – to get across what I really mean through back-and-forth texting; and it’s easy to create misunderstandings. Let me try to clarify more fully where I stand.Just because Scripture was used whether in reference to teaching or doctrine or in defense of doctrine, that does not equate into Scripture being “THE” authority …
Really…both? So several thousand denoms, with different and varied interpretations is the work of the Holy Spirit?Both … and neither, if you insist that it has to be one or the other exclusively, and all the time. God has not limited His options.