Why the divinity of Jesus is being taken literally when a lot of what in the Bible is not?

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Jesus taught that we are all children of God and we must be perfect just as our Heavenly father is, this isn’t being taken literally.

What makes Jesus so unique to be worshiped as a god and not to be considered as only a wise and enlightened human being of his time?
Jesus did not teach that we are all children of God by default
but that we become such through belief on Jesus Christ.

What makes Jesus so unique is that HE
IS GOD !!! Not “a god”, but The God, the
Only God.

Isaiah expresses over and over that God is One, There are no
other gods, neither before or ever after, as do other prophets.

HOWEVER, Jesus (The Word) was with God in the beginning (eternally), and the nature
of Jesus (The Word) was and is Divine. God is a god, Jesus is a god, there is only One
God, both are identified as the “I AM”, there must be a complexity in the unity of God, a
Triune Being, Father, Son, & Holy Spirit. Read the Gospel of John, AND NOT JOSEPH
SMITH’S CORRUPTION OF IT!
 
Can you be a Christian without believing in the divinity of Jesus, are such beliefs defined as heresies?
No, one can’t be Christian without believing in Christianity, that’s kind of the point.
Jesus and his divinity and his unity with the Father are one of the core tenants of
belief that make a Christian a Christian.

Jehovah’s Witness who believe there are many gods and
that Jesus is Michael the Archangel, NOT CHRISTIAN.
Mormons who believe there are many gods and that one can become
a god and that Jesus had to attain Godhood, NOT CHRISTIAN.
 
If it is not meant literally then how is it meant? Can anything imperfect enter heaven?

Peace
James
God is the only perfect being, so to an extent, even those in heaven are imperfect because they are not God. The Bible says that nothing unclean can enter heaven, it doesn’t say that nothing imperfect can enter heaven. Our “perfection” is coming to be who God desires us to be. We are only “perfect” when we are in union with God’s will, call it a human perfection if you want. This is why it is not literal, because we cannot actually attain real perfection, but we can come to the completion in God’s desire for who we are to be, but only with God’s help, we cannot attain it on our own. Those in heaven have reached this completion. It is possible to reach this completion on earth, though it seems unlikely. And for those of us who are not able to reach this completion on earth, but God deems that we may enter heaven, there is purgatory to cleanse us and make us ready.
 
Jesus taught that we are all children of God and we must be perfect just as our Heavenly father is, this isn’t being taken literally.

What makes Jesus so unique to be worshiped as a god and not to be considered as only a wise and enlightened human being of his time?
First part: the Catholic Church teaches us that both are literal, 1) that we must be “perfect as our Father” and the definition of that “perfection” is found in the full context of Chapter 5 of Matthew (the Sermon on the Mount) and 2) that Jesus is not just “a god”, but he is “The God” incarnate in the person of the Son of God.
I don’t know where you heard that we do not take it literally; perhaps you mean that you don’t take some of Church doctrine literally, but you personally choose to think other teachings are metaphors or similes, and you would like to instill some doubt in us about Jesus by hinting that we have doubts about the perfection required by Jesus of us.???

Second Part: Uniqueness of Jesus: He was born of a Virgin, conceived by the Holy Spirit as He overshadowed the Virgin just as the Presence of God overshadowed the Tent containing the Ark of the Covenant. All this was prophesied from the time of the Fall through the prophesies of the Old Testament to His Birth, and he fulfilled these. I guess that makes him unique. Then he was anointed as our King by John the Baptist, and he chose people to lead and be part of his Kingdom, which is what happened to us when we were Baptized. We are an “alien people in the countries where we dwell” and He is our King and our God.

John Martin
 
Ummm… Born of a Virgin? Do we know of anyone else born that way?
 
Some ancient gods were born that way, Islam believe that Jesus is a prophet who was born of a virgin.
However, in this forum you are for the most part asking Catholics why they believe him unique and suggesting that we don’t take Jesus seriously about his requirement that we be perfect, you were not asking why Islam believes he is the Son of God. There is one other mistake in your original question, where you suggest Jesus telling us we are all children of God. He actually says only those “born from above” or “born of the Spirit” are such. And those are the ones to whom he is saying “You must be perfect…”

John Martin
 
Some ancient gods were born that way, Islam believe that Jesus is a prophet who was born of a virgin.
Actually, this is untrue. If you actually read many of the stories of these “gods”, they were never actually born for one (as in human flesh), but they also weren’t born of virgins.
 
My statement was in a reply for what Isaiah45_9 said, being born from a virgin doesn’t explain the divinity of Christ for at least Muslims believe this story but not his divine nature.

In the old testament, is there any verse that mentions the Son of God? Melchizedek is compared to Christ as the first priest, but is there any other one?
 
My statement was in a reply for what Isaiah45_9 said, being born from a virgin doesn’t explain the divinity of Christ for at least Muslims believe this story but not his divine nature.

In the old testament, is there any verse that mentions the Son of God? Melchizedek is compared to Christ as the first priest, but is there any other one?
Here is the Divinity of Jesus Christ:En archē ēn ho Lógos,
kai ho Lógos ēn pros
ton Theón, kai Theós
ēn ho Lógos
.
John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word,
and the Word was with
God, and the Word was God.
Now despite the English translation, what the Greek really indicates at the ***last part ***of
the verse is that the Word is Divine, the Nature of the Word is of God, the Word is of a
Divine Nature. What do we do with a verse that identifies Jesus as Divine and With God
eternally when there is Only One God? Answer: Jesus is God! ONE with the Father (as
well as the Holy Spirit).
 
Now you need Old Testament references indicating the existence of Jesus as God?

First we can look in Genesis 19:24, where “YHWH rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah
brimstone and fire from YHWH out of heaven,” WAIT! I thought there was only ONE YHWH.
First sign that God is complex in his unity (In other words: Trinity).

In Wisdom 2:12-22, we find a prophetic passage which is SO clearly fulfilled by Jesus in the Gospel,
Wisdom describing “the righteous man” who “calls himself a child of the Lord” and says that “God
is his father.” This “righteous man” reproaches the religious authorities of “sins against the Law”
and accuses them of sins against their training. They plot to “test him with insult and torture”
and “condemn him to a shameful death,” not knowing the “the secret purposes of God.”

Another indicator that there are multiple persons in the One Being that is God is found in
Exodus 32:11-14 where God tells Moses that he will destroy the Israelites for their recent
sins of worshiping another god/idol, Moses pleads with God not to do that, leading to God
NOT destroying the Israelites. How is that significant? God CANNOT change his mind,
as seen in Malachi 3:6 where God says “…I am the Lord, I change not…”, revealing an in-
teraction of Divine Persons in the One Being of God.

That should be enough Old Testament, but let’s look now the the Book of Revelation:

Maybe you need something more Jesus-y, as some people say that “Jesus never claimed to
be God,” well in Revelation 1:8, 17 and 22:13, Jesus ACTUALLY SAYS that he is the Alpha
and the Omega
, the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End, not as though a pro-
phet such as in Isaiah 44:6 - "Thus says the Lord, the King of Israel and his Redeemer,
the Lord of hosts
: “I am the first and I am the last; besides me there is no god," but Jesus
says “I AM”, not *“Thus says the Lord” *because HE IS THE LORD!
 
This is not what I meant, many verses in the Bible aren’t being taken literally, why the divinity of Jesus is? That was my question, then I got few answers about verses from the Bible on how he is the son of God, but these verses are being taken literally, while others aren’t.

What are the criterias to take some verses literally but others not?

Can you be a Christian without believing in the divinity of Jesus, are such beliefs defined as heresies?
Great question! The question you’re asking really ultimately comes down to one of authority, who decides? Who decides what Jesus meant? Are we just supposed to argue back and forth with verses. Or did Jesus leave us with a better way?

Catholics believe he did. He left us with a Church who could interpret his words authoritatively, so we wouldn’t have to worry whose interpretations are correct. So the question is…which Church? For that we have to look to the only Church that’s been around since the time of the apostles. And that as a matter of history is the Catholic Church. And when we look at what the earliest Christian writers, those who were ordained by the apostles themselves or ordained by those who the apostles ordained, all the way up we see this constant truth taught, the divinity of Christ.

This is something the Church has always held, from the earliest days, even before the canon of the New Testament was officially put together, the Church was proclaiming and defending Jesus Christ as the Eternal Son, God in the flesh. It was so important many of them died for proclaiming it.

So that’s how we decide, we trust the Church’s ancient tradition. Something taught by the apostles themselves,.

Of course, the context and the words Jesus himself used help us see how he really couldn’t have been speaking any other way but literally. Some of the things he said and demanded of his followers are claims no creature, no matter how exalted or holy could properly make.

Things like saying the Son must receive the same honor as the Father, and if anyone doesn’t honor the Son, they don’t honor the Father(Jn 5:22-23). :eek: That’s absolutely impossible and outright blasphemous for any mere man to say. Or demanding people to love him more than father or mother or wife and children, and to give up everything to follow him. No one but God deserves that kind of radical and complete devotion, as a Jew, Jesus would have recognized that. He constantly points people to himself, which is exactly the opposite of every other prophet or holy person who ever lived. They all tell people not to focus on them, but on God. Jesus doesn’t do that. That makes him either extremely prideful and arrogant, or crazy. He can’t just be a wise holy teacher and do that kind of stuff. Holy people don’t say those things.

And they definitely don’t use the Divine Name to refer to themselves like Jesus does in Jn 8:58.

But all these things don’t prove Jesus is God automatically. They lend credibility to the Church’s belief, but they are not the source of it. Her source is the witness of the apostles and the ones who were taught by them, all of whom professed the divinity of Christ. Because as you can see with this thread, we can get into semantic debates and swing verses back and forth until the cows come home. And not decide anything. There has to be an authority outside scripture, and that’s why we need the Church, and it’s the Church who ultimately gets to decide what Jesus meant.

And to answer your last question, the divinity of Christ is THE defining characteristic of Christianity. If someone denies it and calls themselves a Christian, that would be similar to someone calling themselves a Muslim yet denying Muhammed as the last and greatest prophet, it won’t work. (Obviously the cases aren’t exactly symmetrical, but you catch my drift :))
 
My statement was in a reply for what Isaiah45_9 said, being born from a virgin doesn’t explain the divinity of Christ for at least Muslims believe this story but not his divine nature.

In the old testament, is there any verse that mentions the Son of God? Melchizedek is compared to Christ as the first priest, but is there any other one?
Not did I say it explained it by itself. But added to the discussion and asked a question at the same time. Which was followed with the statement that there is one God.
 
Great question! The question you’re asking really ultimately comes down to one of authority, who decides? Who decides what Jesus meant? Are we just supposed to argue back and forth with verses. Or did Jesus leave us with a better way?

Catholics believe he did. He left us with a Church who could interpret his words authoritatively, so we wouldn’t have to worry whose interpretations are correct. So the question is…which Church? For that we have to look to the only Church that’s been around since the time of the apostles. And that as a matter of history is the Catholic Church. And when we look at what the earliest Christian writers, those who were ordained by the apostles themselves or ordained by those who the apostles ordained, all the way up we see this constant truth taught, the divinity of Christ.

This is something the Church has always held, from the earliest days, even before the canon of the New Testament was officially put together, the Church was proclaiming and defending Jesus Christ as the Eternal Son, God in the flesh. It was so important many of them died for proclaiming it.

So that’s how we decide, we trust the Church’s ancient tradition. Something taught by the apostles themselves,.

Of course, the context and the words Jesus himself used help us see how he really couldn’t have been speaking any other way but literally. Some of the things he said and demanded of his followers are claims no creature, no matter how exalted or holy could properly make.

Things like saying the Son must receive the same honor as the Father, and if anyone doesn’t honor the Son, they don’t honor the Father(Jn 5:22-23). :eek: That’s absolutely impossible and outright blasphemous for any mere man to say. Or demanding people to love him more than father or mother or wife and children, and to give up everything to follow him. No one but God deserves that kind of radical and complete devotion, as a Jew, Jesus would have recognized that. He constantly points people to himself, which is exactly the opposite of every other prophet or holy person who ever lived. They all tell people not to focus on them, but on God. Jesus doesn’t do that. That makes him either extremely prideful and arrogant, or crazy. He can’t just be a wise holy teacher and do that kind of stuff. Holy people don’t say those things.

And they definitely don’t use the Divine Name to refer to themselves like Jesus does in Jn 8:58.

But all these things don’t prove Jesus is God automatically. They lend credibility to the Church’s belief, but they are not the source of it. Her source is the witness of the apostles and the ones who were taught by them, all of whom professed the divinity of Christ. Because as you can see with this thread, we can get into semantic debates and swing verses back and forth until the cows come home. And not decide anything. There has to be an authority outside scripture, and that’s why we need the Church, and it’s the Church who ultimately gets to decide what Jesus meant.

And to answer your last question, the divinity of Christ is THE defining characteristic of Christianity. If someone denies it and calls themselves a Christian, that would be similar to someone calling themselves a Muslim yet denying Muhammed as the last and greatest prophet, it won’t work. (Obviously the cases aren’t exactly symmetrical, but you catch my drift :))
This.
 
When Christians refer to Jesus as the “Son of God”, we are using a human term to express a concept that does not translate very well into human language. We’re not talking about a biological son or a being that was once given life from a pre-existing parent like a pagan deity. We are talking about a Being who is eternally begotten of God and of the same essence as God. He has always existed as God and at the same time “with” God before incarnating as Jesus. The best word in English that I can think of to describe this relationship is an “avatar”. This * concept *is in the Old Testament in certain episodes which are known as “theophanies” which prefigure Jesus. For example, the Angel of the Lord is no ordinary Angel in the Bible. He’s not a named archangel like Michael, Gabriel, or Raphael. He is someone that God uses as a direct representative, and someone who accepts worship, and someone who is even referred to as “God” at times but at other times as an Angel. Also he never gives his “name” when he is asked (when he wrestles with Jacob and when he appears to Samson’s parents). Just like God doesn’t really give a name, he just says “I am”–He is the eternal existence. The passages about the Angel of the Lord are very mysterious and he is thought to be the pre-incarnate Christ. Now in Daniel 3:91-92, a fourth man appears in the fiery furnace with Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, which could be this Angel and who is referred to as “Son of God”. So the term “Son of God” is used in the Old Testament.
 
I’m not 100% sure but lets say for discussion sake that there isn’t. What does that have anything to do with the price of tea in china?
Let me preface this by saying that if there is no mention of the Son of God in the Old Testament, it in no way disproves that Jesus is divine. It does though add an additional hurdle to work through, both to Jews who have a specific messianic portrait in mind as well as non-Christians. Both of these group may feel that each link between the Old Testament and the New Testament that should be there but isn’t is a mark against its validity.

Again, the topic at hand doesn’t prove or disprove anything. It does give doubters pause as to whether the New Testament is the next chapter in the story of man and the divine, or if it is a relatively newer teaching that tried to inelegantly glom itself to a pre-existing tradition.
 
Let me preface this by saying that if there is no mention of the Son of God in the Old Testament, it in no way disproves that Jesus is divine. It does though add an additional hurdle to work through, both to Jews who have a specific messianic portrait in mind as well as non-Christians. Both of these group may feel that each link between the Old Testament and the New Testament that should be there but isn’t is a mark against its validity.

Again, the topic at hand doesn’t prove or disprove anything. It does give doubters pause as to whether the New Testament is the next chapter in the story of man and the divine, or if it is a relatively newer teaching that tried to inelegantly glom itself to a pre-existing tradition.
Thanks but maybe those people could give evidence for their belief that every title Christ went by in the NT, should be found in the OT. Is there a prophecy in the OT that says “the messiah better go by all of these titles or else He is not the messiah?” Is there a prophecy in the OT that states the messiah cannot reveal things about himself?
 
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