M
mmortal03
Guest
Thanks for the newsflash. You are completely missing or sidestepping my point regarding translation methodology. More on that below.But they didn’t have our manuscripts today, did they? What they used was the Vulgate and what they produced was the Douay-Rheims.
We need to clarify the difference between mistranslation and source error here. Mistranslations can shed some minor light on a the translation methodologies of a text, but source errors can’t. We need to make sure that we clarify which is the bigger problem in the DR.Yes, modern versions DO have mistranslations; there is not a single version that doesn’t. The question is which has more blatant mistranslations, and I still think the DR does.
Even mistranslations in specific spots should not speak for an entire text’s accuracy or translation goals, and that is what you are doing, throwing out an entire translation by saying that individual errors must therefore somehow abound throughout.
We must differentiate between inaccuracies caused by specific spots in the manuscripts that were used (the Vulgate in this case), which could have definitely thrown them off at those particular spots, versus entire procedural translation methodologies causing misrepresentation of the message. I argue that certain liberal translation goals and even certain good intentioned modernizing of the language in more recent English translations have, directly and inadvertently, caused systematic problems throughout certain recent texts. The translation goals and methodologies need to better account for transferring linguistic, symbolic, and metaphorical nuances that are present in the other languages over into English.
We should be choosing the overall translation methods that produce the least amount of watering down of the original message, and, yes, don’t get me wrong, we should also be trying to produce translations containing the least amount of errors as possible. I am all for accuracy, and for correcting the transient instances of errors that have been found in the Vulgate, and therefore, in the Douay Rheims.
But for people to use the occasions of errors found in the Douay Rheims to dismiss it as so flawed, without seeing what the Douay Rheims can provide in literary style, metaphor, and substance and how it more successfully transferred much of this over to the English language, compared to many of the more modern translations, is just as one-sided.
I’ve never had a problem with anyone liking or preferring the DR, but all I see here when people extol it are constant references as to how “it supports Church teaching” and “how it shows Mary’s role” etc. etc. or “how it matches the Vulgate” but never against the Hebrew or Greek. And then they proceed to bash other translations never mind its use by the most respected of scholars, and even the Catechism of the Catholic Church and the documents of the Holy See. They even bring Satan’s name into the picture, just like KJV-only fundamentalists.
At those points where it supports Church teaching and shows Mary’s role, and matches the Vulgate, etc, yes, it SHOULD be compared to the Hebrew or Greek. But don’t knock the DR because of the looney DR-onlyists, please.Sorry, but no. I recognize the advances made in textual science and I will pick the RSV-CE over the Douay as the more faithful to the originals. The RSV is not perfect, but it has less mistranslations than the DR.
And don’t forget the Magisterium’s role in all of this. The Bible doesn’t just interpret itself, and you are bordering very close on a Protestant sola Scriptura line of thinking with some of what you said.
Yes, if we could somehow produce a flawless Bible translation from sources that have been determined to be lacking error, and if Catholicism is the one true faith, then it should confirm all that is Catholic doctrine.
However, the reality is that you can’t translate into another language without having a good bit of external context for what the writers were getting at. Interpretation and translation unfortunately have to go hand in hand somewhat, and we can’t really determine what is an error of translation (not error of source) without comparing it to something, whether it be a linguistic, stylistic, or a tradition issue .
We can determine statistically and with modern textual science the most probable and accurate source texts, but as far as translating those once we have produced them, it seems to me that a mistranslation can only be defined as being of a linguistic error or misrepresentation, a removal of important symbolism and nuance, or a traditional/doctrinal incompatibility.
Finally, with your apparent referencing of the RSV-CE, who is condemning it? Most people here have pointed out certain errors in it, and passages that could be worded more accurately, but generally, it is a favorite translation here on the board.