B
BartholomewB
Guest
“Old English” and “Anglo-Saxon” are two names for the same language.
**English is a West Germanic language** that was first spoken in early medieval England and eventually became a global lingua franca .[4][5] Named after the Angles, one of the Germanic tribes that migrated to the area of Britain that would later take their name, England, both names ultimately deriving from the Anglia peninsula in the Baltic Sea. It is closely related to the Frisian languages, but its vocabulary has been significantly influenced by other Germanic languages, particularly Norse (a North Germanic language), as well as by Latin and French.[6]
English language - Wikipedia
Not only were there dialects but those dialects apparently grew out of actual linguistic differences, that is, at one time part or all of northern England was a separate country called ‘Danelaw,’ which had been settled by Danish vikings and whose population spoke Danish. To this day all of the words we use in English which begin with an ‘sk’ like skirt have their origins in Danish. ‘Skirt’ meant ‘shirt’ in Danish. The two languages must have melded together with a bunch of words (including the ‘sk-’ words, which are not native to English) coming into standard English.I think there were diverse dialects in England even in Chaucer’s time. Chaucer’s English was basically a London-area dialect. It became dominant because it became the language of trade. Likely Chaucer and whoever the “Pearl Poet” was had a lot of influence as well.
As BartholomewB pointed out, ‘Old English’ and ‘Anglo-Saxon’ are the same thing (which I didn’t know). J.R.R. Tolkien was a lecturer in Anglo-Saxon at Oxford University.Beowulf was, I believed, originally in Old English, not Old Saxon. But again, supposedly they were closely related. If there was ever a language properly called “Anglo-Saxon” I’m unaware of it. I think those names are closely associated in reference simply because they were closely related in time, place and possible tribal kinship.
http://homes.chass.utoronto.ca/~cpercy/courses/6361Heys.htmAlthough Middle English (and therefore Present Day English) owes a great debt to French and Norman for a large number of loan words, Anglo-Norman was only ever the mother-tongue of a few generations of England’s elite. From the Conquest of 1066 to the early 13th century, Anglo-Norman was the mother-tongue of the upper class. Many historical events, both major and minor, affected French as a mother-tongue in England, from royal marriages and the Hundred Years War to the geographical groupings of Norman immigrants and descendants. After a relatively short time, however, Anglo-Norman was totally replaced by Middle English, a language that easily reveals its close and prolonged exposure to Anglo-Norman.
Yes, even more so if we go back to the original neumes, which had no staff!Isn’t Gregorian notation specifically modeled for the human voice unlike the standard notation used in music?
I too took four years of Latin, and while I was often struggling not to be bored in the class (it didn’t help that it was usually first thing in the morning and I would have preferred to be sleeping in than having to conjugate verbs at that hour), it has been very useful, not only for liturgical purposes but because I better understood all the Latin legal terms I encountered in my work. I imagine that doctors also find it useful for the same terminology reasons.All I know is I took four years of Latin in high school and wish I’d spent that time doing something useful.![]()
There’s a great discussion in Sir Walter Scott’s Ivanhoe about language, that when they talked about pigs, they used the Saxon word - swine, but when it was food it was Norman - pork.We don’t know we’re “shifting languages” if we switch from talking about finance to talking about football or the kids, but we are.