Crusader,
I think you need to step back for a min.
- I never claimed that bells were used in the Early Church. So shut up about it.
- You are uncharitable to suggest that I said that all Mass was celebrated in Latin. I never said that. INFACT Jesus may have spoke in the non vernacular hebrew during the Last Supper, IIRC. HEBREW!!! SO BEAT THAT Vernacular!!! But then, the main issue is not language here.
- In the Middle East Tradition in ancient times, the custom was to hand feed a guest. Communion in the hand at that time, was more reverent, and had a warning attached to it. Our time it came through abuse.
- I have demanded textual proof and you have not given one iota.
Characteristics of the Early Church and how dissimilar was the NOM to the Mass of the apostles.
- had no pews, NOM* churches have pews, people stood
- men and women are seperated, in NOM* men and women are mixed
- there was non-ordained deaconess, NOM has no non-ordained deaconess.
-Ad Orientem***, not versus ad populum, NOM is reguarly done versus ad populum
-Women were banned in the sanctuary, NOM allows women in the Sanctuary.
-There was not EMHC, NOM has tons of EMHC
-Likely a form of the Roman Canon would have been used, not EPII, EPIII, or EPIV
-no Nicene Creed
-Dismissal of the Catechumens, NOM allows them to stay
-No Gothic Chasuables
-no rock and roll music
-Celebrated Mass over relics, NOM stripped the requirements of relics in their altars.
***Bibilically justified, Second comming is from the East, Jesus is teh Sun of Justice. As some of the priests say “facing God”.
The fact is, that the NOM kept many of the medieval Accretions** and water them down.
**Orate Frates is medieval origin
*Some of the stuff happens in the TLM too, not saying its NOM only.
I think you are the loser, I asked for evidence, the only thing you have came up is more assertions and claiming that I said this and that. Again, you have not proven that the NOM is closer to the Apostolic times. The fact is, no one can know, how for sure it was celebrated, we know a few details but not enough. To this day, no one know exactly for sure how the Sarum Mass was celebrated, and you think you know how the Mass of the ancient times where celebrated??? Show me a missal from that era and explain to me how it was closer to the MAss of the apostles, but you cannot do so. Hey even, the Heretic Thomas Cranmer said that his BCP, a butcherized version of the Sarum Use was the service of the Early Church. Should I believe you or him?
Heck, by your assertions. I can even use that to prove that the NOM is closer to Cranmers BCP, because in the BCP, they had Communion-in-hand, no bells, no longer faced east, vernacular etc. Simply saying the early church had CinHand, no bells, vernacular does not prove anything unless because by that standard, if those some things were done to the TLM, all of the sudden, the TLM will be closer to the Early Church.
**If you want to prove the the Novus Ordo Missae is closer to the Early Church, you need a missal to missal comparision w/ the rubrics and rules side by side. ** Just like what I am trying to do with DV, while respectfully disagreeing with him.
You have to be joking me, unless you had a time Machine and actually saw what was going on you basically have no argument. But you resort to ridiculous assertions such as “There was no bells, no latin”. Speaking of Latin, I think St. Paul had to know some Latin.
At least the other posters who are disagreeing with me on other topics are being more reasonable than you.
Tell me that I lost the discussion again, it does not change fact that no one knows how exactly it was celebrated. You can bring up Communion in Hand, no bells.