Why variations in Greek? A passage on penance

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Hi Marco,

It’s a misprint. If you look at the Greek characters, it is as you quoted.

Verbum
 
MarcoPolo said:
In the Haydock commentary on 2 Corinthians 12:21, there is a comment according to St. Augustine that the Greek words Ton me metanoesanton speaks of doing great penance, not just repentance.

The Douay-Rheims translation reflects this.

But when I go to the online Greek interlinear Bible, the phrase seems to be worded kai me metanoeo.

Why the difference in Greek phrasing here? Are they different dialects?
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I would note that John Chrysostom in his Homilies on 2 Corinthians use the word repent in these verses.
Ver. 21. And “lest when I come again, my God should humble me among you.”
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And the word “again,” too, is as smiting them. For he means, ‘What happened before is enough;’ as he said also in the beginning [of the Epistle], “to spare you, I came not as yet to Corinth.” .) Do you see how he shows both indignation and tender affection? But what means, “will humble me?” And yet this is glorious rather, to accuse, to take vengeance, to call to account, to be seated in the place of judge; howbeit he calls it a humbling. So far was he from being ashamed of that [cause of] humbling, because, “his bodily presence was weak, and his speech of no account,” that he wished to be even for ever in that case, and deprecated the contrary. And he says this more clearly as he proceeds; and he counts this to be especially humbling, to be involved in such a necessity as the present, of punishing and taking vengeance. And wherefore did he not say, ‘lest when I come I shall be humbled,’ but, “lest when I come my God will humble me.” ‘Because had it not been for His sake, I should have paid no attention nor been anxious. For it is not as possessing authority and for my own pleasure, that I demand satisfaction, but because of His commandment.’ Now above, indeed, he expressed himself thus, “I shall be found;” here, however, he relaxes and adopts milder and gentler language, saying,
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“I shall mourn for many of them who have sinned.” Not simply, “who have sinned,” but,
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"Who have not repented."And he said not, ‘all,’ but “many;” nor made it clear who these were either, thereby making the return unto repentance easy to them; and to make it plain that a repentance is able to right transgressions, he bewails those that repent not, those who are incurably diseased, those who continue in their wounds.
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newadvent.org/fathers/220228.htm
 
SyCarl said:
I would note that John Chrysostom in his Homilies on 2 Corinthians use the word repent in these verses.
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Thanks SyCarl…it seems that when St. Chrysostom says: “…he bewails those that repent not, those who are incurably diseased, those who continue in their wounds” that repenting to him is not just an internal sense of repenting. When he says “continue in their wounds” it sounds more like the common understanding of penance is in order, if one takes “wounds” as also applying to sin.
 
NASB: I am afraid that when I come again my God may humiliate me before you, and I may mourn over many of those who have sinned in the past and not repented of the impurity, immorality and sensuality which they have practiced.

Robertson’s Word Pictures of the New Testament

When I come again (palin elqontoߠmou). Genitive absolute. Paul assumes it as true. Lest my God humble me (mh tapeinwsh me o qeoߠmou). Negative final clause (mh and first aorist active subjunctive), going back to poboumai in Ecclesiastes 20. He means a public humiliation as his fear. The conduct of the church had been a real humiliation whether he refers to a previous visit or not. That have sinned heretofore (twn prohmarthkotwn). Genitive plural of the articular perfect active participle of proamartanw to emphasize continuance of their sinful state as opposed to mh metanohsantwn (did not repent) in the aorist tense.

bible.crosswalk.com/Commentaries/RobertsonsWordPictures/rwp.cgi?book=2co&chapter=012&verse=021&next=&prev=020

👍
 
Because there is the Majority Text, or Byzantine Text, and the Alexandrian Text which are two different traditions. According to scholars the Byzantine Text is the corrupt one (which comprises 80-90% of manuscripts). For the Old Testament there are 3: Masoretic Text (MT), Septuagint (LXX), and Samaritan Pentateuch. The Dead Sea Scrolls have shown that the Septuagint, even though a translation, has kept the text of the original Hebrew Bible and the one they use today is from a different tradition, whereas the Samaritan usually goes along with the Septuagint.
 
Hi Marco,

Other interlinears DON’T have it different. There was a misprint in the Latin translitteration that you cited. The Greek print is fine.

Robert
 
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