Why was Jesus' prayer for the unity of the Church not answered?

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“I do not pray for these only, but also for those who believe in me through their word, that they may all be one; even as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be in us, so that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. The glory which thou hast given me I have given to them, that they may be one even as we are one, I in them and thou in me, that they may become perfectly one, so that the world may know that thou hast sent me and hast loved them even as thou hast loved me. Father, I desire that they also, whom thou hast given me, may be with me where I am, to behold my glory which thou hast given me in thy love for me before the foundation of the world. O righteous Father, the world has not known thee, but I have known thee; and these know that thou hast sent me. I made known to them thy name, and I will make it known, that the love with which thou hast loved me may be in them, and I in them.”
(John 17:20-26 RSV-CE)

In the above passage Jesus prayed for the unity of the Church. However, the Church is not unified. The Church is split between Catholics, Orthodox, and Protestants. Why was Jesus’ prayer for the unity of the Church not answered? Or perhaps it will be answered at a later time?
 
There’s three ways to look at this I think.
  1. His prayer was answered. The church is still one. Anyone who left is not part of the church. Kind of like wanting your family to be one…but if someone leaves the family, the family is still one…it’s just a bit smaller. Or a tree that loses a branch. The tree is not two, it is still one. The branch is not part of the tree.
  2. His prayer was answered in that all Christians are one. We all follow Christ, right? Maybe it doesn’t mean our definition of “one” but perhaps it meets God’s definition.
  3. His prayer will be answered. Like the 1st person who posted after the OP, perhaps its just a matter of time. God, existing outside of time, would not find this as puzzling as we might.
Just some thoughts! 🙂
 
Because we are sinners. Just because Catholics belong to one church doesn’t mean they are united. History is full of Catholic nations going to war against each other. Jesus gave us many commands that Christians don’t follow.
 
Surely God sent the grace to all to be one with Christ… but we are sinners and some refuse the grace.
 
What I’ve always wondered about was the phrase…

“…but also for those who believe in me through*** their ***word…”

He says … Their word.

I don’t know exactly what that means, of course, but all I can imagine what Jesus means are those who strive to be with Him, but may not know Him exactly, through God’s Word.

Gentiles, could be an example… they would have had no knowledge of God’s Word- the old testament, but may have heard about Him and wish to know Him more. In those days, there were no printing presses, and also I would imagine that maybe not many Jewish priests would be all too welcoming to Gentiles?

I see this passage as an indication of Jesus’s compassion on those who may or may not be so welcomed in order TO know Him better, or maybe those without the resources to do so.

As far as the OP’s question goes… I would have to guess it means in God’s time. In Scripture we read about the Good Samaritan… I would think this would give some clue on the issue.

I would also have to agree with all three of the options given by Garyjohn2. Seems like it could be all 3 at the same time. The church is alive after all.
 
AnneElizabeth said:
What I’ve always wondered about was the phrase…

“…but also for those who believe in me through*** their ***word…”

He says … Their word.

I don’t know exactly what that means, of course, but all I can imagine what Jesus means are those who strive to be with Him, but may not know Him exactly, through God’s Word.

Gentiles, could be an example… they would have had no knowledge of God’s Word- the old testament, but may have heard about Him and wish to know Him more. In those days, there were no printing presses, and also I would imagine that maybe not many Jewish priests would be all too welcoming to Gentiles?

I see this passage as an indication of Jesus’s compassion on those who may or may not be so welcomed in order TO know Him better, or maybe those without the resources to do so.

As far as the OP’s question goes… I would have to guess it means in God’s time. In Scripture we read about the Good Samaritan… I would think this would give some clue on the issue.

I would also have to agree with all three of the options given by Garyjohn2. Seems like it could be all 3 at the same time. The church is alive after all.
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Their word… The word of the Apostles whom Jesus taught first.

Jesus is the fullness of God’s revelation of himself to man, and he gave that revelation in all it’s fullness to twelve Apostles.

The Apostles brought Christ to the world after Christ departed from the world.

-Tim-
 
TimothyH said:
Their word… The word of the Apostles whom Jesus taught first.

Jesus is the fullness of God’s revelation of himself to man, and he gave that revelation in all it’s fullness to twelve Apostles.

The Apostles brought Christ to the world after Christ departed from the world.

-Tim-
Click to expand...
Thanks Tim for that clarity, but I do still wonder… what if they only had parts of their (apostles) word? I’m thinking also about those Chinese Catholics who were without a priest for years-- or any other situation like that. Word gets around, but they may not be able to officially enter the church. (At least in those days.) What about them? Could this prayer of Jesus be for them?

(Probably should start another thread with that though, so nevermind… Don’t want to steal the OP’s post.)
 
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