Why was Moses given the 10 commandments / law, since the law is written on our hearts?

[GodHeals]

Hi, Why was Moses given the 10 commandments / law, since the law is written on our hearts, as per Romans:

“(Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law. They show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness, and their thoughts sometimes accusing them and at other times even defending them.) This will take place on the day when God judges people’s secrets through Jesus Christ, as my gospel declares.”(Romans 2:14-16)

I think we had something called transgressions before the law or was it still called sin (I read something that said it was called different before the law was given, and different consequences were also given… i think?!?)? And what are the differences between both of those?

Also, if you have more time, how are these terms defined. I come across them in the OT often:

Commandments
Laws
Statues
Ordinances
Instructions
Rules
Decrees

Thank you!
Brian

 

[RPRPsych]

Also, if you have more time, how are these terms defined. I come across them in the OT often:

Commandments
Laws
Statues
Ordinances
Instructions
Rules
Decrees

Thank you!
Brian

Not too sure about the first part of your question. But I think many of these are basically translators’ renditions of the same Hebrew words, depending on context.

 

[GodHeals]

I have to add one that i forgot : ) It seems that they are all translated differently even using one particular manuscript or another. So there has to be differences or nuances that make a difference. These words seem to be often found in the psalms. I will post this part as a second question so not to muddy the water on my first question. Thanks for trying to help!

Principles
Commandments
Laws
Statues
Ordinances
Instructions
Rules
Decrees

 

[LumenGent]

They were written on tablets to signify that the hearts which the law was originally written had become hardened, therefore the imagery of the tablets signifies the hardness of men.

 

[Crumpy]

Hi, Why was Moses given the 10 commandments / law, since the law is written on our hearts, as per Romans:

I think we had something called transgressions before the law or was it still called sin (I read something that said it was called different before the law was given, and different consequences were also given… i think?!?)? And what are the differences between both of those?

Also, if you have more time, how are these terms defined. I come across them in the OT often:

Commandments
Laws
Statues
Ordinances
Instructions
Rules
Decrees

Thank you!
Brian

Your questions would take hours and hours of research, you realize? I pulled out my Strong’s Concordance and found that there WERE overlapping definitions, i.e. these english words pointed to multiple hebrew words that overlapped other english words in this list.

The “nuances” would take days of research, to do an exegesis on each of the verses referenced and compare all the other verses. This is virtually a research project, not a simple Catholic Anwers Forum question.

This is not only a question relating to the original source texts in Hebrew, but to the strategy of the translators and the conventions they employed.

THESE QUESTIONS ARE NOT CHILD’S PLAY

As the OT was written over time, and under the influence of nearby languages, the religious sense of the terms may have been at least partially rooted in the civil or legal sense of the term.

A commandment or law might pertain to all mankind at all time (make beer), whereas a decree was much more limited in time, scope, and prehaps applicability ( get me a beer).

 

[GodHeals]

They were written on tablets to signify that the hearts which the law was originally written had become hardened, therefore the imagery of the tablets signifies the hardness of men.

Interesting. Thanks! I have found more info here:

Romans 5:20

New International Version (NIV)

The law was brought in so that the trespass might increase. But where sin increased, grace increased all the more,

Galatians 3:19

New International Version (NIV)

19 Why, then, was the law given at all? It was added because of transgressions until the Seed to whom the promise referred had come. The law was given through angels and entrusted to a mediator.

And other scriptures. It is like an exact answer : ) but i am sure there is more.

I know that Thomas Aquinas wrote “Article 4. Whether there was any need for a Divine law?”-newadvent.org/summa/2091.htm

It is interesting and still reading.

 

[GodHeals]

Your questions would take hours and hours of research, you realize? I pulled out my Strong’s Concordance and found that there WERE overlapping definitions, i.e. these english words pointed to multiple hebrew words that overlapped other english words in this list.

The “nuances” would take days of research, to do an exegesis on each of the verses referenced and compare all the other verses. This is virtually a research project, not a simple Catholic Anwers Forum question.

This is not only a question relating to the original source texts in Hebrew, but to the strategy of the translators and the conventions they employed.

THESE QUESTIONS ARE NOT CHILD’S PLAY

As the OT was written over time, and under the influence of nearby languages, the religious sense of the terms may have been at least partially rooted in the civil or legal sense of the term.

A commandment or law might pertain to all mankind at all time (make beer), whereas a decree was much more limited in time, scope, and prehaps applicability ( get me a beer).

Thank you for your insights. Not sure what you meant about the beer part. I am tired so maybe i missed it if a joke. I agree, not easy to understand these things. I haven’t individually read on each of these, but since i am trying to understand the types of law better, i thought i would ask. Thanks again! God Bless You!