Got it. Prophecies aren’t to be taken literally. Thanks.
OK – ask a technical question… get a highly technical answer. Ready?
You’re talking about Mt 1:23, which itself quotes Isaiah 7:14. In addition, we have to consider
which Isaiah 7:14 we’re talking about – the one found in the Greek (Septuagint) text or the Hebrew (Masoretic) text. Moreover, the author of the Gospel does his own little take on ‘translation’, which we’ll discuss in detail in a moment.
Let’s recall the context of Isaiah 7:14 – Ahaz, the king of Judah is freaking out because Israel and Aram have made an alliance (in order to fend off the advances of the Assyrians) and now they’re marching on Judah (in order to conquer it and use its strength for their own aims). Isaiah is sent by God to tell King Ahaz not to freak out – that God is telling Ahaz that Syria and Israel both will fall. The problem is, Ahaz has no intent to rely on God; instead, he’s going to turn to Assyria for protection, as well as turning to the gods of Damascus (see 2 Kings 16). God tells Isaiah to have Ahaz ask Him for a sign that what He’s saying is true. Ahaz doesn’t
want a sign – after all, he’s not interested in trusting in God. Nevertheless, God gives him the sign we all know: “the virgin shall be with child…”
In the Hebrew version of Isaiah 7:14, we see the verb “shall call”. The big question is…
who shall call? If you vocalize the word one way, it becomes “you shall call” (2nd person singular) – as if God is saying “you, Ahaz, will call him…”. If you vocalize it another way, it becomes “she shall call” (as in “the virgin shall call…”).
If you look at the Greek text – the Septuagint – you find that this translation says “you shall call.” Incidentally, for a variety of reasons, it’s clear that it’s this
Greek version of Scripture that Matthew is quoting. So, the prophecy, as it appears in the Septuagint, is only claiming that Ahaz will call this child “God is with us.” (Which is particularly ironic: Ahaz’s whole problem is that he doesn’t get it that God really
is with him and the nation of Judah.)
Matthew does something particularly interesting, though: he’s just used that word
καλέσεις (“you shall call”) in the context of Joseph’s angelic dream. The angel commands Joseph – which, by extension, means that
God Himself is commanding Joseph – to name the baby “Jesus.” If Matthew were then to turn around and say “you shall call him Emmanuel”, then confusion would result. Therefore, Matthew looks at the prophecy in its historical context and renders it in his paraphrase as “and they shall call him Emmanuel.”
Is this reasonable? Very much so. If we look at Isaiah 8:10, we see that the cry that rises up is “with us is God!”. And Jesus Himself affirms that this is the case, proclaiming, “I am with you until the end of the age”!
So, in summary, here’s your answer: the prophecies say that either “you” or “she” or “they” will call… but not that his parents will name him “Emmanuel.” Rather, the angel of God commands Joseph to name him “God Saves” (Jesus).