Why were books taken out of the Bible?

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Wasn’t there an Old English translation made in the 700’s too?
 
Not true. If you are referring to the Council of Trent,it did not fix or close the canon. And why? Because it was only confirming what had been fixed back in the 4th and 5th centuries.
That’s not quite how I understand it.
 
Kindly explain how you understand it? Peace!
The earlier councils were local, which means that although they might be accepted by all, they were not necessarily going to be. And in fact we have the East accepting some different books, and then the Protestant reformers look to accept a reduced number. Which isn’t necessarily illegitimate if the councils were just local.

Trent just affirmed that as far as the Catholics were concerned the decisions of the earlier local councils were in effect ecumenical, which would mean that the Protestants were wrong (and I guess the East too?) Of course from the Protestant POV it affirmed that the Catholics were wrong, so I guess it was all very fair really.😉
 
The earlier councils were local, which means that although they might be accepted by all, they were not necessarily going to be. And in fact we have the East accepting some different books, and then the Protestant reformers look to accept a reduced number. Which isn’t necessarily illegitimate if the councils were just local.

Trent just affirmed that as far as the Catholics were concerned the decisions of the earlier local councils were in effect ecumenical, which would mean that the Protestants were wrong (and I guess the East too?) Of course from the Protestant POV it affirmed that the Catholics were wrong, so I guess it was all very fair really.😉
Thanks for sharing. Yes there is some truth behind your explanation,but it does go deeper and a lot more complex. True to an extent because certain Orthodoxs have a longer OT canon than both Catholics and Protestants.However,just because certain groups may have rejected the official canon in 397 and 417 A.D. does not equate into being false or undecided. Did the Arians reject the Nicene Creed in 325 and 381 A.D.? Yes. Does it mean the Creed is still questionable and undecided? Accepting or rejecting a doctrine does not change its official position. Jehovah Witnesses reject the doctrine of the Trinity,but does not matter,it is what it is,take it or leave it.

The history of the canon is complicated and there are different versions of that history given by different scholars, regardless of their church affiliation.

I would say that the practice of the Church is the ultimate criterion. What the New Testament writers started the Church Fathers continued. Both groups either quoted from or alluded to the deuterocanonicals from time to time. This seems to have been the majority practice in the early centuries of Christianity even though some questioned the validity of the deuterocanonicals. As time moved on, the Church more and more acknowledged their inspired character by using them as Scripture.

Frankly,whether one wants to have 49,46 or 39 books in the OT is not issue for me. I alone cannot resolve the issue.

Peace and God Bless you.
 
Not true. If you are referring to the Council of Trent,it did not fix or close the canon. And why? Because it was only confirming what had been fixed back in the 4th and 5th centuries.
Cardinal Cajetan, and numerous others during and before his time didn’t seem to think so.
“Here we close our commentaries on the historical books of the Old Testament. For the rest (that is, Judith, Tobit, and the books of Maccabees) are counted by St Jerome out of the canonical books, and are placed amongst the Apocrypha, along with Wisdom and Ecclesiasticus, as is plain from the Prologus Galeatus. Nor be thou disturbed, like a raw scholar, if thou shouldest find anywhere, either in the sacred councils or the sacred doctors, these books reckoned as canonical. For the words as well of councils as of doctors are to be reduced to the correction of Jerome. Now, according to his judgment, in the epistle to the bishops Chromatius and Heliodorus, these books (and any other like books in the canon of the Bible) are not canonical, that is, not in the nature of a rule for confirming matters of faith. Yet, they may be called canonical, that is, in the nature of a rule for the edification of the faithful, as being received and authorised in the canon of the Bible for that purpose. By the help of this distinction thou mayest see thy way clearly through that which Augustine says, and what is written in the provincial council of Carthage.”
Jon
 
This might be slightly OT, but I’ve always wondered-------

Why was The Book Of Enoch NOT allowed on the Original Selections of Books?

Guess it was too “weird” for Christians to stomach at the time.

Fascinating work regardless.

And it answers the Question reagrding the Mysterious Statement “There were Giants In The Earth In Those Days” from Genesis. 👍
I also have a special Place in My Heart for Enoch and his struggle against the Nephillim. 👍
 
Those are Cardinal Cajetan’s words? References please.
While this does not cover as many books as Jon’s quote does I provide a link to the full work. It is from Pope Gregory the Great and only deals with 1 Maccabees but it shows that some books were not considered canonical but were good to read.
With reference to which particular we are not acting irregularly, if from the books, though not Canonical, yet brought out for the edifying of the Church, we bring forward testimony. Thus Eleazar in the battle smote and brought down an elephant, but fell under the very beast that he killed.
(An Exposition on the Book of the Blessed Job, Volume 2, Part 3, Book 19, Paragraph 34)
lectionarycentral.com/GregoryMoralia/Book19.html
 
William Webster, The Church of Rome at the Bar of History (Carlisle, Pennsylvania: The Banner of Truth Trust, 1995)

I read it here:
tquid.sharpens.org/Luther_%20canon.htm#_edn47

If you, or someone else, can qualitatively dispute the quote, I will retract it.
Jon
Thanks Jon,however,William Webster is a well known staunch anti-Roman Catholic.He is an anti-Catholic apologist who,no offense,I take his words with a grain of salt.
 
Thanks Jon,however,William Webster is a well known staunch anti-Roman Catholic.He is an anti-Catholic apologist who,no offense,I take his words with a grain of salt.
That’s fine, Nicea. I feel the same way about Denifle and O’Hare. I only point that quote out to underline the fact that the D-C’s had been in dispute by good Catholics from St. Jerome on until Trent. And this dispute was not resolved for Catholics until Trent. The idea that the canon was set in the early Church is also disputed by the fact that there are varying canons in Orthodoxy also.

Jon
 
QUOTE=JonNC;7387296]That’s fine, Nicea. I feel the same way about Denifle and O’Hare. I only point that quote out to underline the fact that the D-C’s had been in dispute by good Catholics from St. Jerome on until Trent. And this dispute was not resolved for Catholics until Trent. The idea that the canon was set in the early Church is also disputed by the fact that there are varying canons in Orthodoxy also.
Yes the DC’s have had their shares of disputes. As I have stated in the past,frankly it makes no difference to me what one wants to believe about the DC’s. We are all free to believe what we choose. I personally believe the early church used the DC’s and the Greek OT,but others may adhere to a 39 OT canon,which is fine with me. I own one NKJV with the 39 OT, several Catholic Bibles with 46 OT and one Orthodox Bible with the 49. I find them all great and useful for studies. 👍
 
Thanks for sharing. Yes there is some truth behind your explanation,but it does go deeper and a lot more complex. True to an extent because certain Orthodoxs have a longer OT canon than both Catholics and Protestants.However,just because certain groups may have rejected the official canon in 397 and 417 A.D. does not equate into being false or undecided. Did the Arians reject the Nicene Creed in 325 and 381 A.D.? Yes. Does it mean the Creed is still questionable and undecided? Accepting or rejecting a doctrine does not change its official position. Jehovah Witnesses reject the doctrine of the Trinity,but does not matter,it is what it is,take it or leave it.

The history of the canon is complicated and there are different versions of that history given by different scholars, regardless of their church affiliation.

I would say that the practice of the Church is the ultimate criterion. What the New Testament writers started the Church Fathers continued. Both groups either quoted from or alluded to the deuterocanonicals from time to time. This seems to have been the majority practice in the early centuries of Christianity even though some questioned the validity of the deuterocanonicals. As time moved on, the Church more and more acknowledged their inspired character by using them as Scripture.

Frankly,whether one wants to have 49,46 or 39 books in the OT is not issue for me. I alone cannot resolve the issue.

Peace and God Bless you.
Question: Did not the Pope (whoever he was at the time) give his approval of the councils’ determinations in 397 and 417? If he did, then does it not make it officially approved?
 
Question: Did not the Pope (whoever he was at the time) give his approval of the councils’ determinations in 397 and 417? If he did, then does it not make it officially approved?
Councils have prevailed without the Pope’s approval. But local councils are local, unless they are accepted by everyone.
 
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Nicea325:
Yes the DC’s have had their shares of disputes. As I have stated in the past,frankly it makes no difference to me what one wants to believe about the DC’s. We are all free to believe what we choose. I personally believe the early church used the DC’s and the Greek OT,but others may adhere to a 39 OT canon,which is fine with me. I own one NKJV with the 39 OT, several Catholic Bibles with 46 OT and one Orthodox Bible with the 49. I find them all great and useful for studies. 👍

I think this is the position Lutherans should take, as well. Well said.

Jon
 
40.png
Nicea325:
I personally believe the early church used the DC’s and the Greek OT
As do I. A large majority of Old Testament references in the New Testament are taken from the Greek Septuagint. In fact, some NT quotes refer to events that were only explicitly recorded in one of the deuterocanonical books (e.g. Hebrews 11:35 refers to 2 Maccabees 7).

I know that at least some of the deuterocanonicals were found among the Dead Sea Scrolls (and, iirc, one of the Gospels as well… either Matthew or Mark).
 
Yes the DC’s have had their shares of disputes. As I have stated in the past,frankly it makes no difference to me what one wants to believe about the DC’s. We are all free to believe what we choose. I personally believe the early church used the DC’s and the Greek OT,but others may adhere to a 39 OT canon,which is fine with me. I own one NKJV with the 39 OT, several Catholic Bibles with 46 OT and one Orthodox Bible with the 49. I find them all great and useful for studies. 👍
I think this is the position Lutherans should take, as well. Well said.
Amen brother!
 
and, iirc, one of the Gospels as well… either Matthew or Mark.
I’ve heard John Martinogni state this as fact on his show several times, but no excerpts from the Gospels have been found at Qumran.
 
I’ve heard John Martinogni state this as fact on his show several times, but no excerpts from the Gospels have been found at Qumran.
Though there are arguments pro and con, both Jose O’Callaghan and Carsten Peter Thiede assert that fragment 7Q5 (discovered in Qumran Cave 7) is from Mark 6:52-53. If the assertion is true, that would make this the earliest known fragment of the New Testament.
 
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