Why were the Jewish people offered the Law?

[meltzerboy]

It is believed by some in Judaism that G-d offered the Torah Law to the Jews last, after other nations rejected it. It is also thought that G-d chose the Jews because they were the LEAST powerful nation, and perhaps the least worthy, in order to show that if they would accept the Torah and abide by its teachings, this would have to be attributed ultimately to the power and grace of G-d, and not to the people themselves. These two statements seem to me somewhat contradictory.

Which were the other nations offered the Law before the Jews? Could this really be a metaphor for the fact that other nations behaved in a less godlike manner, and in this way rejected the Law even before receiving it?

Your thoughts on this are appreciated.

 

[Aelred_Minor]

The second suggestion sound very interesting. Almost Pauline in the idea of God’s strength showing through the weakness of those He has chosen. I wonder if the idea could have already been present in the Judaism of, for example, Gamaliel, and if Paul’s thinking on the subject could have been a continuity of this theme. Of course, Paul would also have pointed out how the Jews tended to fail to keep the entire Law faithfully, and so a greater consciousness of sin and the need for redemption was generated through the Law.

The first suggestion strikes me as fishy, or not very compatible with my own incomplete understanding of the subject anyway. Also the concept of “the nations” here seems questionably permanent. Where were, say, the English people during or before the time of Abraham? They didn’t exist- their ancestors were living in Great Britain and the Jutland peninsula and elsewhere, but had nothing like an English identity. Or where can you find a modern Hittite, or even a modern Visigoth? Nationality is a fluid thing. Some nations last a long time, while others arise and still others disappear. If God wanted to offer the Law to every nation, why not offer it to new nations that arise after Abraham or after Moses?

The truth I could see behind the first suggestion it is that the Natural Law has indeed been made known, or at least been made knowable, to every nation. This law, then, was rejected inasmuch as the people of those nations still sinned and even hardened their hearts against their natural knowledge of right and wrong.

The way I see it, the “Torah Law” (I assume you mean what is typically called the Mosaic Law by Catholics) was/is a unique law particular for Israel’s unique mission to prepare for and eventually produce the Savior of the world and founder of the Church.

Some aspects of the Mosaic Law were simply explicit reiterations of Natural Law, such as the Ten Commandments except the commandment about the Sabbath (and even that reflected the natural rhythm of work and rest and the need to set aside time for God- general principles that were put into a concrete form for the Jews and a slightly different concrete form for Christians- the Lord’s Day).

Then there were the ritual aspects, often centered around sacrifices and festivals, including laws applying to the Levitical Priesthood. These things expressed the inner sacrifice of praise and repentance which God wanted from His people, and in a deeper sense prefigured the single efficacious sacrifice of the Cross, which was to come. Many of the laws also had a focus on ritual purity, which was a symbol of inner spiritual purity, a sort of purity of intention possible even before Christ and a real sanctification which would later be made present in and through Christ to the Church. There were also laws which seem specifically designed to create a cultural barrier between the Israelites and the surrounding nations, most famously through diet. These cultural barriers would help preserve them from absorption into surrounding cultures, whether the Canaanites early on, or the Mesopotamians during the Exile, or the Greeks during Hellenization campaigns, or even later. And of course there was ritual circumcision to mark a clear definition of whether someone is a member of the covenant people or not (for men that is).

These different elements of course overlap a great deal- circumcision for example probably has themes of ritual cleanness and cultural separation built into it as well as other layers of meaning, and though I’m unaware of it ever being conceived of as a sacrifice it is nonetheless a shedding of blood for ritual reasons, and would eventually be the first time the Messiah would shed his blood, which seems significant to me.

To these more positive elements we can add a more negative element I’ve already mentioned- St. Paul’s reflection that through the Law came consciousness of sin. By explicitly laying out both a great deal of natural law and a body deal of additional ritual/cultural law, God gave the Israelites the obligation to do something which on the one hand was theoretically possible for them to do since they had free will, but which on the other hand would be very difficult and would predictably lead to a great deal of individual transgressions on the part of Israelites. The prophets bear witness to the sense of the seriousness of sin that the breaking of the Law gave rise to, and this awareness that we are sinners in need of forgiveness in turn helped prepare for the ministry of John the Baptist and eventually of Jesus and the Apostles.

The point is that, from a Christian perspective, it all flows through many tributaries into the single stream of preparation for/prefigurement of Christ. This why we also believe that the Law is not binding on Christians, even Jewish Christians, because in Christ everything that the Law prepared for is fulfilled. That’s not to say the Mosaic Law is not still binding on Jews who have not been baptized- in my estimation it probably is.

And all this is also why I don’t see much room for the idea of the Mosaic Law being offered to other nations besides the Jews. No other nation had the same mission that the Jews did, and the purpose of the Mosaic Law seems intimately tied to that mission.

As for why one people (or one person, Abraham, through Isaac and Jacob) was chosen and not another, perhaps the best answer would be St. Augustine’s advice on questioning why God predestines some and not others- don’t speculate if you do not wish to err.

 

[7_Sorrows]

very interesting. and in the New Testament, Jesus wants to preach His gospel to the Jews first.

i have always believed that God planned on making His covenant with the Jewish people first.

i believe that God was hoping that by giving the Law to the Jewish people, it would set an example. they would be a light.

 

[puzzleannie]

It is believed by some in Judaism that G-d offered the Torah Law to the Jews last, after other nations rejected it. It

I have never heard or read this. What is your source?

 

[Creation43]

Gal 3:19 Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.
We know that sin is the transgression of the Law (1Jn 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law. ).
So the ``law’’ was added because of the transgressing of an already existing Law. There was a pre-existing law, and an ADDED law. The ADDED Law was valid UNTIL the SEED (=Jesus) came.

So what was the previous already existing Law that was transgressed in the first place?

We can look at the sins before the Jews. Look at Cain killing Abel. The murder commandment already existed. People were guilty of idolatry. People comitted adultery. People stole. All elements of the ten commandments, which the catechism (at least, the cathechism located on the official Vatican website) teaches to be binding upon all Christians. Even the Sabbath was a universal pre-existing Law. How can we tell? Jesus said: The sabbath was made for MAN (i.e, not just the Jews),…Mark 2:27. WHEN did Jesus make the Sabbath? Before the Jews. Jesus Himself declares: REMEMBER the Sabbath day… For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.

So the Ten Commandments already existed. It was the additional law, the law of Moses that was added until the seed, Jesus, should come. How do we know Gods commandments are still to be kept even now? Revelation 12:17, …the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ. Revelation 14:12 Here is the patience of the saints: here are they that keep the commandments of God, and the faith of Jesus. Revelation 22:14 Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city.

Jesus said the Mosaic law, additional to Gods already existing eternal Law, was added because of the hardness of the hearts of Gods people back then.

 

[GaryTaylor]

very interesting. and in the New Testament, Jesus wants to preach His gospel to the Jews first.

i have always believed that God planned on making His covenant with the Jewish people first.

i believe that God was hoping that by giving the Law to the Jewish people, it would set an example. they would be a light.

Right, the followers of Christ believed He was the messiah through the prophecy of the OT. They choose to bring their message to the Jews first. Their response changed the course of history basically. Thus, though many Jews did convert, Israel in general didn’t. Then the Gentiles became the focus. The no was turned into a yes by Christ on the Cross.

As He was the sacrifical Passover lamb.

Peace

 

[bevsue]

Hi meltzerboy - my take on why God chose the Jewish race to move His plan forward was simply because He loved them and chose them for that reason. Is it possible there were other logical, intellectually interesting reasons why? Of course. But God is a God of love, as well as truth and justice. As a Christian I believe that to be true, for surely He has manifested that to us in our salvation, which we are unworthy of. I believe God chose Noah out of love, Abraham out of love, Moses out of love, David out of love, the prophets, judges and kings out of love. Just as He chooses us individually to follow Him, because He loves us, so He chose His people because He CHOSE them, for no other reason than He did because of His love, and it could also be for so many reasons we as humans can’t even know. But His love was perfect, His plan was perfect, and so He chose.

Shalom.

 

[Hail_Linus]

It is believed by some in Judaism that G-d offered the Torah Law to the Jews last, after other nations rejected it.

I don’t know if there is an official Catholic teaching on this. However, I personally agree with this. Interestingly this reminds me of the Parable of the wedding feast in Matthew 22 and specifically the verse “Many are called but few are chosen” in Matthew 22:14.

It is also thought that G-d chose the Jews because they were the LEAST powerful nation, and perhaps the least worthy, in order to show that if they would accept the Torah and abide by its teachings, this would have to be attributed ultimately to the power and grace of G-d, and not to the people themselves.

This reminds me of when Jesus said the “humble will be exalted” or “the last shall be first.” I hope you don’t mind me putting a Christian spin on this but there is a similarity with this and the way the Christians (the least powerful) in the first century ended up conquering the Roman Empire.

These two statements seem to me somewhat contradictory.

Catholics believe in free will and yet we also believe God already knows what your will is. That sounds contradictory also. My opinion is that we all make logical conclusion based on the facts we have. Only God has all of the facts so we are unable to make a true logical conclusion. So I do believe that the term “Chosen people” has a double meaning: 1) God chose the Jews and 2) The Jews chose God.

In the Old Testament we can see similar examples where God chose Noah but Noah also chose to obey God; God chose Abraham and yet Abraham chose God, etc. This theme continues in the New Testament where we see that God Chose Mary but also Mary chose God, Jesus chose Peter and Peter chose God, Paul was chosen by Jesus and Paul chose to accept Jesus.

Which were the other nations offered the Law before the Jews? Could this really be a metaphor for the fact that other nations behaved in a less godlike manner, and in this way rejected the Law even before receiving it?

Your thoughts on this are appreciated.

I suppose it was offered to all of the nations. Judaism was the first religion where a persons relationship with God was affected by how he treated others. It really was revolutionary.

One of my favorite verses in the NT is John 4:22 where Jesus tells the Samaritan woman “You worship what you do not know; we know what we worship, for salvation is of the Jews.”

 

[CopticChristian]

Gal 3:19 Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.
We know that sin is the transgression of the Law (1Jn 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law. ).
So the ``law’’ was added because of the transgressing of an already existing Law. There was a pre-existing law, and an ADDED law. The ADDED Law was valid UNTIL the SEED (=Jesus) came.

So what was the previous already existing Law that was transgressed in the first place?

We can look at the sins before the Jews. Look at Cain killing Abel. The murder commandment already existed. People were guilty of idolatry. People comitted adultery. People stole. All elements of the ten commandments, which the catechism (at least, the cathechism located on the official Vatican website) teaches to be binding upon all Christians. Even the Sabbath was a universal pre-existing Law. How can we tell? Jesus said: The sabbath was made for MAN (i.e, not just the Jews),…Mark 2:27. WHEN did Jesus make the Sabbath? Before the Jews. Jesus Himself declares: REMEMBER the Sabbath day… For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.

So the Ten Commandments already existed. It was the additional law, the law of Moses that was added until the seed, Jesus, should come. How do we know Gods commandments are still to be kept even now? Revelation 12:17, …the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ. Revelation 14:12 Here is the patience of the saints: here are they that keep the commandments of God, and the faith of Jesus. Revelation 22:14 Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city.

Jesus said the Mosaic law, additional to Gods already existing eternal Law, was added because of the hardness of the hearts of Gods people back then.

And the gentile that has not the law and does the law is a law unto himself. There apparently was also a priesthood other than Leviticus, ie Melchezidek.

 

[MorningSong51]

It is believed by some in Judaism that G-d offered the Torah Law to the Jews last, after other nations rejected it. It is also thought that G-d chose the Jews because they were the LEAST powerful nation, and perhaps the least worthy, in order to show that if they would accept the Torah and abide by its teachings, this would have to be attributed ultimately to the power and grace of G-d, and not to the people themselves. These two statements seem to me somewhat contradictory.

Which were the other nations offered the Law before the Jews? Could this really be a metaphor for the fact that other nations behaved in a less godlike manner, and in this way rejected the Law even before receiving it?

Your thoughts on this are appreciated.

Rashi:

He said: The Lord came from Sinai Moses initiated his blessing by praising the Omnipresent, and then he addressed the needs of Israel. — [Sifrei 33:2] The praise with which Moses commenced, mentions the merit of Israel. All this was a way of conciliation, as if to say, “These people are worthy that a blessing should rest upon them.”

came from Sinai He came out toward them when they came to stand at the foot of the mountain, as a bridegroom goes forth to greet his bride, as it is said, “[And Moses brought the people forth] toward God” (Exod. 19:17). We learn from this, that God came out toward them (Mechilta 19:17).

and shone forth from Seir to them [Why did He come from Seir?] Because God first offered the children of Esau who dwelled in Seir] that they accept the Torah, but they did not want [to accept it].

He appeared to them

*from Mount Paran [Why did God then come from Paran?] Because He went there and offered the children of Ishmael who dwelled in Paran] to accept the Torah, but they [also] did not want [to accept it]. — [A.Z. 2b]

and came to Israel.

with some holy myriads With God were only some of the myriads of His holy angels, but not all of them, nor [even] most of them. This is unlike the manner of a mortal, who displays all the splendor of his riches and his glory on his wedding day. — [Sifrei 33:2]

a fiery law for them It was originally written before God in [letters of] black fire upon [a background of] white fire. — [Tanchuma Bereishith 1] He gave it to them on tablets, inscribed, by His right hand [thus it is said here, “from His right hand”]. Another explanation of אֵשׁ דָּת : As the Targum renders it, that He gave it to them from amidst the fire.

Q Why do we have the custom of holding and carrying a Sefer Torah in the right arm?

A It is based on the pasuk (D’varim 33:2), …MI’Y’MINO EISH-DAT LAMO, "… He brought the fire of a religion to them from His right hand."

**
A Also, from the phrase in Shir HaShirim (2:6), VIMINO T’CHABKEINI, “…and his right hand embraces me.”**

---

 

[MorningSong51]

It is believed by some in Judaism that G-d offered the Torah Law to the Jews last, after other nations rejected it. It is also thought that G-d chose the Jews because they were the LEAST powerful nation, and perhaps the least worthy, in order to show that if they would accept the Torah and abide by its teachings, this would have to be attributed ultimately to the power and grace of G-d, and not to the people themselves. These two statements seem to me somewhat contradictory.

Which were the other nations offered the Law before the Jews? Could this really be a metaphor for the fact that other nations behaved in a less godlike manner, and in this way rejected the Law even before receiving it?

Your thoughts on this are appreciated.

Also mentioning, “eish shahor al gabei eish lavan”, refers to “black fire upon white fire.”

TWO PERSPECTIVES:

The Alter Rebbe explains [4] that there are two levels of 'white' and 'black fire': 1) white and black from the perspective of a teacher, and 2) white and black from the perspective of a student.
Engraved letters are recessed into a surface, like vessels that can receive light. Thus, when we say, "formed light," we touch the arm tefillin. Embossed letters, protrude from a surface, and therefore cannot receive light. Thus, when we say, "created darkness," we touch the head tefillin.[5]

My favorite part of scripture or when I read from scripture, some quotes will begin with “Hear” or in one passage, it states; “23 Listen and hear my voice; pay attention and hear what I say.” From the 1st of the two perspectives - the light of knowledge, is to listen and then do or as it is said, do and then understand - “Naaseh V’Nishmah” - “We will do and then we will attempt to understand.”

Perhaps the hidden things (or key knowledge) was never given but not the knowledge of “who” God is, was not excluded - (although) Matt 6:22 “The lamp of the body is the eye. If your eye is sound, your whole body will be filled with light;23 but if your eye is bad, your whole body will be in darkness. And if the light in you is darkness, how great will the darkness be.” This verse is similar to the 2nd perspective - Embossed letters, protrude from a surface, and therefore cannot receive light. Thus, when we say, “created darkness,” we touch the head tefillin."

S’fat Emet teaches that the Torah is black fire written on white fire. One way to understand this is that the black fire is the spoken letters of the Torah, and the white fire is the silent breath between and around them….(Black Fire on White Fire)

On yet another level, the black letters represent thoughts which are intellectual in nature, whether p’shat or d’rash. The white spaces, on the other hand, represent that which goes beyond the world of the intellect. The black letters are limited, limiting and fixed. The white spaces catapult us into the realm of the limitless and the ever-changing, ever-growing.

Blessings,
Mary

 

[meltzerboy]

I have never heard or read this. What is your source?

See post #10 by MorningSong51. This seems to be Rashi’s interpretation of verses from Deuteronomy 33.

 

[meltzerboy]

Also mentioning, “eish shahor al gabei eish lavan”, refers to “black fire upon white fire.”

TWO PERSPECTIVES:

The Alter Rebbe explains [4] that there are two levels of 'white' and 'black fire': 1) white and black from the perspective of a teacher, and 2) white and black from the perspective of a student.
Engraved letters are recessed into a surface, like vessels that can receive light. Thus, when we say, "formed light," we touch the arm tefillin. Embossed letters, protrude from a surface, and therefore cannot receive light. Thus, when we say, "created darkness," we touch the head tefillin.[5]

My favorite part of scripture or when I read from scripture, some quotes will begin with “Hear” or in one passage, it states; “23 Listen and hear my voice; pay attention and hear what I say.” From the 1st of the two perspectives - the light of knowledge, is to listen and then do or as it is said, do and then understand - “Naaseh V’Nishmah” - “We will do and then we will attempt to understand.”

Perhaps the hidden things (or key knowledge) was never given but not the knowledge of “who” God is, was not excluded - (although) Matt 6:22 “The lamp of the body is the eye. If your eye is sound, your whole body will be filled with light;23 but if your eye is bad, your whole body will be in darkness. And if the light in you is darkness, how great will the darkness be.” This verse is similar to the 2nd perspective - Embossed letters, protrude from a surface, and therefore cannot receive light. Thus, when we say, “created darkness,” we touch the head tefillin."

S’fat Emet teaches that the Torah is black fire written on white fire. One way to understand this is that the black fire is the spoken letters of the Torah, and the white fire is the silent breath between and around them….(Black Fire on White Fire)

On yet another level, the black letters represent thoughts which are intellectual in nature, whether p’shat or d’rash. The white spaces, on the other hand, represent that which goes beyond the world of the intellect. The black letters are limited, limiting and fixed. The white spaces catapult us into the realm of the limitless and the ever-changing, ever-growing.

Blessings,
Mary

Thank you so much, MorningSong, for the fascinating information in these two posts.

 

[MorningSong51]

It is believed by some in Judaism that G-d offered the Torah Law to the Jews last, after other nations rejected it. It is also thought that G-d chose the Jews because they were the LEAST powerful nation, and perhaps the least worthy, in order to show that if they would accept the Torah and abide by its teachings, this would have to be attributed ultimately to the power and grace of G-d, and not to the people themselves. These two statements seem to me somewhat contradictory.

Which were the other nations offered the Law before the Jews? Could this really be a metaphor for the fact that other nations behaved in a less godlike manner, and in this way rejected the Law even before receiving it?

Your thoughts on this are appreciated.

It is also thought that G-d chose the Jews because they were the LEAST powerful nation, and perhaps the least worthy, in order to show that if they would accept the Torah and abide by its teachings, this would have to be attributed ultimately to the power and grace of G-d, and not to the people themselves.

Amen and the answer is in Deuteronomy 7:7-12, Jesus had an entire sermon on this: Matthew 22:36-40,

36 “Teacher, which is the greatest commandment in the Law?”

37 Jesus replied: “‘Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind.’[a] 38 This is the first and greatest commandment. 39 And the second is like it: ‘Love your neighbor as yourself.’** 40 All the Law and the Prophets hang on these two commandments.”

In reply Jesus said: "A man was going down from Jerusalem to Jericho, when he fell into the hands of robbers. They stripped him of his clothes, beat him and went away, leaving him half dead. A priest happened to be going down the same road, and when he saw the man, he passed by on the other side. So too, a Levite, when he came to the place and saw him, passed by on the other side. But a Samaritan, as he traveled, came where the man was; and when he saw him, he took pity on him. He went to him and bandaged his wounds, pouring on oil and wine. Then he put the man on his own donkey, took him to an inn and took care of him. The next day he took out two silver coins and gave them to the innkeeper. ‘Look after him,’ he said, ‘and when I return, I will reimburse you for any extra expense you may have.’ “Which of these three do you think was a neighbor to the man who fell into the hands of robbers?” The expert in the law replied, “The one who had mercy on him.” Jesus told him, “Go and do likewise.” (NIV, Luke 10:25-37 )…

---

Jacob - Genesis 25:21 Isaac prayed to the LORD on behalf of his wife, because she was childless. The LORD answered his prayer, and his wife Rebekah became pregnant. 22 The babies jostled each other within her, and she said, “Why is this happening to me?” So she went to inquire of the LORD. 23 The LORD said to her,

“Two nations are in your womb,
and two peoples from within you will be separated;
one people will be stronger than the other,
and the older will serve the younger.”

---

David - 2 Samuel 7: 18 Then King David went in and sat before the LORD; and he said: “**Who am I, O Lord GOD? And what is my house, that You have brought me this far? **19 And yet this was a small thing in Your sight, O Lord GOD; and You have also spoken of Your servant’s house for a great while to come.

Israel - 7 The LORD did not set his affection on you and choose you because you were more numerous than other peoples, for you were the fewest of all peoples.**

 

[MorningSong51]

Thank you so much, MorningSong, for the fascinating information in these two posts.

You are very welcome - again, I have enjoyed your questions on this and also other forums. Please keep them coming - as you’ve helped me to search the scriptures and also pull info from conversations in the past.

 

[Cowboy_Pete]

Which were the other nations offered the Law before the Jews?

Who was Melchizedek, the one to whom Abraham paid tithes?

What nations had contact with Enoch’s city?

From what nation did Job hail from?

 

[MorningSong51]

Who was Melchizedek, the one to whom Abraham paid tithes?

What nations had contact with Enoch’s city?

From what nation did Job hail from?

Who was Melchizedek, the one to whom Abraham paid tithes?

Answer: Melchizedek, was a priest and king of Salem - and a prophet. When Melchizedek brought Abraham bread and wine - tithes were exchanged, not only this - Melchizedek, being a priest and King, the Spirit of Lord spoke through him (a prophet) in these exchange of words "Blessed be Abram by God Most High, Creator of heaven and earth.20 And praise be to God Most High, who delivered your enemies into your hand.” (see Luke 1:46, and Luke 2:14)

Then Abram gave him a tenth of everything.

He is introduced as the king of Salem, and priest of El Elyon (“The highest God”). He brings out bread and wine and blesses Abram. Also, some say Shem - Noah’s son, is believed to have been Melchizedek, King of Salem whom Abraham is recorded to have met after the battle of the four kings.

---

What nations had contact with Enoch’s city?

Answer: What language was the book written in? - Ge’ez Language, so this should be conformable -Ge’ez is an ancient South Semitic language that developed in the northern region of Ethiopia and southern Eritrea in the Horn of Africa.

Note: A number of these Books are called “deuterocanonical” (or “apocryphal” according to certain Western theologians), such as the Ascension of Isaiah, Jubilees, Enoch, the Paralipomena of Baruch, Noah, Ezra, Nehemiah, Maccabees, Moses and Tobit. The Book of Enoch in particular is notable since its complete text has survived in no other language.

Origins

---

From what nation did Job hail from?

Answer: “Uz,” according to Gesenius, means a light, sandy soil, and was in the north of Arabia-Deserta, between Palestine and the Euphrates, called by Ptolemy (Geography, 19) Ausitai or Aisitai. In Gen_10:23; Gen_22:21; Gen_36:28; and 1Ch_1:17, 1Ch_1:42, it is the name of a man. In Jer_25:20; Lam_4:21; and Job_1:1, it is a country. Uz, in Gen_22:21, is said to be the son of Nahor, brother of Abraham - a different person from the one mentioned (Gen_10:23), a grandson of Shem. The probability is that the country took its name from the latter of the two; for this one was the son of Aram, from whom the Arameans take their name, and these dwelt in Mesopotamia, between the rivers Euphrates and Tigris. Compare as to the dwelling of the sons of Shem in Gen_10:30, “a mount of the East,” answering to “men of the East” (Job_1:3). Rawlinson, in his deciphering of the Assyrian inscriptions, states that “Uz is the prevailing name of the country at the mouth of the Euphrates.” It is probable that Eliphaz the Temanite and the Sabeans dwelt in that quarter; and we know that the Chaldeans resided there, and not near Idumea, which some identify with Uz. The tornado from “the wilderness” (Job_1:19) agrees with the view of it being Arabia-Deserta. Job (Job_1:3) is called “the greatest of the men of the East”; but Idumea was not east, but south of Palestine: therefore in Scripture language, the phrase cannot apply to that country, but probably refers to the north of Arabia-Deserta, between Palestine, Idumea, and the Euphrates. So the Arabs still show in the Houran a place called Uz as the residence of Job.