Why would Mohamed (Pbuh) do that?

  • Thread starter Thread starter lightofeyes
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Giovanni said:
and yes those who wrote the koran did incorporate Judeo/Christian scriptures into their work of art.
Click to expand...
Incorrect incorporations of agnostic Judeo-Christian Scriptures mind you! Yes, all the people in that area had heard about Christ by that time was a warped agnostic view of things (you know: the gospels that say He switched a twin of Himself into His place at the Crucifixion, ect…)! I personally feel sorrow for those who have been lead astray by false prophets:

"Then the LORD said to me, “The prophets are prophesying falsehood in My Name. I have neither sent them nor commanded them nor spoken to them; they are prophesying to you a false vision, divination, futility and the deception of their own minds.”(Jeremiah 14:14)

"And Jesus answered them and said to them,“See to it that no one misleads you. For many will come in My Name, saying, ‘I am the Christ,’ and will mislead many.” (Matt 24:4&5)

“Beware of the false prophets, who come to you in sheeps clothing, but inside are ravenous wolves.”(Matt 7:15)
 
The first thing we should keep in mind is that Mohammed bin Abdullah got his fallible scribes to write the Quran because he always believed and taught that he was BETTER & GREATER than all the prophets of the past.

Q 1) Why did he copy from the Old Testament?

**A1)**Because he was in contact with Jews more than with Christians, and he was impressed with basic tenets of Judaism. It is not surprising to me that the Islamic Scripture contains few vague verses about Jesus despite several “chapters” relating Moses’ life story and prophetic mission. Mohammed’s primary aim was to replace Jews of the Old testament with the Arabs of his time. This is how Mohammed worked out his comparison between Israelites of the Exodus and pagan Arabs of his time. Isaac was Abraham’s free son through whom God granted His promise and benediction, but the Israelites had been oppressed in Moses’ time. Moses became the leader of the Exodus and saved his people from slavery. Ishmael, on the other hand, was Abraham’s son born of a slave woman. At this point, Mohammed declared himself “the new Moses” that saved Arabs from slavery as well as idolatry against Jews through his claims of bringing God’s ultimate revelation. In short, Mohammed bin Abdullah aimed to elevate Arabs over Jews through his allegedly new religion! This is why he kept claiming that only he knew the truth and could firmly establish Allah’s so-called true religion on earth. All other prophets of the past - the ones with the books being Jewish! - had failed to spread the true faith due to their Jewish origin, but Mohammed became successful because he was Arab! (racist tone in the Quran)

to be continued…
 
Q2)Why did Mohammed bin Abdullah believe in Jesus and His miraculous birth?
A2) Because Mohammed was crafty enough to benefit from the religious disputes between Jews & Christians. Accordingly, he highlighted these disagreements between the people of the Book in his scripture so as to prove that humanity desperately needed him to settle the matter. He subsequently chose some of the Judeo-Christian tenets and altered them due to the requirements of his daily political agenda. He embraced Jesus solely because Jews did not believe in Him. Uncannily, the source of the Islamic praise of the prophet Issa is Mohammed’s anti-Semitic sensations. (He denied the crucifixion for the same purpose with no plain theological reason!) The same can be said about Maryam’s position in the Quran. The more Jews cursed Mary & Jesus, the more Mohammed tried to defend them so as to win the favour of the powerful Christians of his era and demonstrate that Judaism & Christianity could be united only through Islam! (fantasy)

**Q3)**Why did Mohammed bin Abdullah keep silent about his parents and childhood in his scripture although his scribes narrated Issa’s miraculous birth in details?
**A3)**Because Mohammed never claimed to be a true believer by birth! His folk had witnessed his pagan worship for years among them. Mohammed preferred a dramatic and drastic conversion to Islam rather than a pure childhood full of miracles. In order to prove the authenticity of his book, he regarded his conversion in the cave as the initiation of his faith and prophetic mission! Besides, all Mohammed’s contemporaries also knew perfectly well that his parents were idolaters of the highest rank. Mohammed manipulated faith as well as the so-called divine revelation.

Above all, Mohammed never referred in the Quran to people that had a negative impact on his psychology. He used his scripture as a means of effacing the dark age in his life prior to his role of the last messenger. This is why he never allowed the scribes to write a single verse to praise his first beloved wife Khatijah! Even though Khatijah was the first “woman” to support Mohammed, she had been known as a dominant wife without whose help his young husband would never have gained wealth and fame! After Khatijah’s death, Mohammed began to dominate upon his many women by the help of his Allah and find an opportunity to take revenge from all women dominating over their husbands through their wealth!

to be continued…
 
Q4)Why did Mohammed bin Abdullah teach that the Quran was sent to confirm the previous Scripture & why did he avoid asserting that the Bible was corrupt?
**A4)**Because Mohammed needed historic evidence and the testimonies of his “colleagues” so as to endorse the divine origin of his scripture! Mohammed was cunning enough to teach that he was not the only one to promote Islam. Thus, he could attach credibility to his philosophy. He definitely never taught or even implied that the previous scriptures were corrupt since he based his teachings on those former revelations! More, Mohammed also claimed that his book was supposed to confirm and protect the Jewish-Christian Scripture. If he had believed those texts were corrupt, people would have inferred that there was no need for the Quran!

**Q5)**Why did Mohammed bin Abdullah copy some narratives from the Christian Apocrypha?
A5)Because Mohammed had no access to the canonical Gospels of his time and he probably did not know the Church considered some texts "apocryphal! More to the point, Mohammed’s scribes inserted into the Quran the narrative of Mary’s life in the temple primarily because they wanted to edit the equivalent of that story in the 19th chapter! The scribes had devised the infancy narrative in the chapter named after Maryam in order to criticize Jews for calling Maryam a “bagiyya” (prostitute). Thus, that account was shaped due to the Jewish accusations Mohammed witnessed in his time! However, the same scribes copied the account in the Gospel of James (Protoevangelium) to present the Christian perspective about Mary’s chastity & holiness.In short, Mohammed’s scribes wrote the same story from both the Jewish & Christian perspective. This is why Maryam in chapter 19 needed to remind the angel that she was not a “prostitute” whereas Maryam in chapter 3 never uttered that word since there was no one to accuse her as a woman consecrated to God in the temple.

Any more questions? I’ll be waiting…

Peace & blessings to all,
AngelosN.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top