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AlmaRedemptorisMater
Guest
You’d better be sure that you’re right, because if you’re wrong you will have to answer for your blasphemy at the end.
I would think it logical but at the same time I have had the pleasure of conversing with numerous priests and find I get quite different answers to the same questions from time to time.Wannano:
Georgetown Univ , A Jesuit University, did a survey, and found 79% of Catholics don’t attend Mass faithfully on Sunday. They might be (C& E) Christmas and/or Easter Catholics, or they stopped going to mass altogether but still call themselves Catholic.AtheistNoMore:
How have you determined that we don’t want to? My understanding is that we can’t partake in your Eucharist if we really don’t believe the wafer has become Jesus. Shouldn’t we rather be respected for admitting we don’t have that belief? I read that only a small percentage of Catholics really believe yet they partake…which they can do because they have been baptized Catholic. Are they better off than a Protestant who admits he has not come to that belief?Hi everyone,
This question has been nagging me for a while about some Protestants’ attitudes toward the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist. As many of us know, many Protestants believe the Eucharist is a mere symbol of Jesus, and not his actual body. Of course, us Catholics understand the Eucharist to be the actual body and blood of Jesus.
What I really want to know is, why wouldn’t a Protestant (or any Christian who doesn’t believe in the Real Presence) want to receive the physical body and blood of Christ in the Eucharist? The Eucharist is the most intimate and physical experience we have with the Lord. Why wouldn’t all Christians want this?
Meaning 21% of Catholics faithfully go to mass on Sundays and holy days of obligation.
SO
Depending on which group one asks faith questions to, one would expect to get different answers to those faith questions… agreed?
Can you please specify what kind of “blasphemy” you have found in what I just wrote?You’d better be sure that you’re right, because if you’re wrong you will have to answer for your blasphemy at the end.
It’s interesting,My simple answer is that
From a theological point of view, it is not the blood of Christ per se that atoned for our sins, but the fact that it was shed on the cross to the point that He died. We were not saved by a blood transfusion or anything like that.
- being a heterosexual male, it is not my custom to have an “intimate and physical experience” with other men, and
- it is not my custom to get an “intimate and physical experience” with other people by eating their bodies and drinking their blood.
So maybe they were supposed to go away, just like Jesus spoke to the people in parables “ecause the knowledge of the secrets of the kingdom of heaven has been given to you, but not to them.” (Matt. 13:11). And parables also contain figurative language, by the way.Jesus didn’t go after them. He didn’t ask for a 2nd or 3rd chance. He let them go.
steve-b:
So maybe they were supposed to go away, just like Jesus spoke to the people in parables “ecause the knowledge of the secrets of the kingdom of heaven has been given to you, but not to them.” (Matt. 13:11). And parables also contain figurative language, by the way.Jesus didn’t go after them. He didn’t ask for a 2nd or 3rd chance. He let them go.
So you actually have experienced a Catholic Eucharist? I have a friend whose son has become a Catholic who claims he goes to Mass with his son and even the Bishop served him the Eucharist even though he has the knowledge that he is non-Catholic. It is confusing.AlmaRedemptorisMater:
Just as I was weirded out, in a good way, when a priest handed out all the hosts first, then we all ate together, at once.I grew in exactly the same way. I actually remember as a child being mildly weirded out when everyone popped the cracker into their mouths and started chewing all at the same time.
…he even let us take the cup.
How is it then that He wants His body gnawed and at Mass you are not supposed to even chew it but let it melt slowly so you have Him as long as possible before swallowing?Johan,
Many of the disciples went away but only after Christ changed the Greek word ‘phago’ [eating] to ‘trogo’ [to chew on, gnaw on]…Do you consider Christ a bad teacher? He had several opportunities to explain the symbolic aspect of His teaching, but He didn’t [he doubled down a few times] and allowed those with no faith to leave.
I think you meant to say that differentlyJohan,
Many of the disciples went away but only after Christ changed the Greek word ‘phago’ [eating] to ‘trogo’ [to chew on, gnaw on].
Well, that argument depends on the assumption that Christ was teaching the disciples in Greek, rather than in Aramaic. Although not impossible, I find that implausible. However, it has been noted that the Evangelist John never used the present tense of ἐσθίω (“to eat”), so he consequently used τρώγω (“to chew”) in his quotation of Ps. 41:9 (“he who eats my bread”) where the Septuagint indeed renders the same wording with ἐσθίω. So the argument that John was using τρώγω to indicate a “physical”, non-metaphorical eating is quite tenuous.Many of the disciples went away but only after Christ changed the Greek word ‘phago’ [eating] to ‘trogo’ [to chew on, gnaw on]…Do you consider Christ a bad teacher?
Point being, Jesus didn’t change the Greek.Do you mean reverse the order? I think it was from one of Staples articles years ago.
As said, that does not explain why John is using trōgō in v. 13:18 (in his quotation of Ps. 41:9), where the Septuagint is using the ordinary esthiō. It seems to be the standard choice of John for the present tense of the verb, rather than an intended “deeper” meaning.…When we consider the language used by St. John, a literal interpretation —however disturbing—becomes even more obvious. In John 6:50-53 we encounter various forms of the Greek verb phago , “ eating .” However, after the Jews begin to express incredulity at the idea of eating Christ’s flesh , the language begins to intensify . In verse 54 , John begins to use trogo instead of phago . Trogo is a decidedly more graphic term, meaning “to chew on” or to “gnaw on” —as when an animal is ripping apart its prey… [Tim Staples…The Eucharist in John 6]
That is not Jesus changing the Greek. That is the Greek describing what Jesus said. As an aside, there is no indication Jesus spoke Greek.…When we consider the language used by St. John, a literal interpretation —however disturbing—becomes even more obvious. In John 6:50-53 we encounter various forms of the Greek verb phago , “ eating .” However, after the Jews begin to express incredulity at the idea of eating Christ’s flesh , the language begins to intensify . In verse 54 , John begins to use trogo instead of phago . Trogo is a decidedly more graphic term, meaning “to chew on” or to “gnaw on” —as when an animal is ripping apart its prey… [Tim Staples…The Eucharist in John 6]
What is the essential difference compared to all the other instances in the Gospel of John where Jesus is clearly speaking figuratively (calling His body “temple” in John 2, speaking of salvation in terms of birth in John 3, talking about living water in John 4, calling His work “food” in the same chapter, etc)?Being overlooked is Christ’s responses over and over again. This is not like [I am the door, vine, etc]…reread all of Chapter 6 with an open heart/mind