Without mentioning a particular apparition

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John_of_Woking

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Without referring to an apparition i just want to ask

Would Mary say this?

"Before God all the faiths are identical. God governs them like a king in his kingdom.”

Could it ever be theologically interpreted in an orthodox manner. To me it sounds like outright heresy?
 
Without referring to an apparition i just want to ask

Would Mary say this?

"Before God all the faiths are identical. God governs them like a king in his kingdom.”

Could it ever be theologically interpreted in an orthodox manner. To me it sounds like outright heresy?
:sad_yes:
 
That is heresy. I spent about three or four minutes trying to read it through a hermeneutic of orthodoxy, but, with how it is phrased, I do not believe that even with the greatest latitude given, that such text can be interpreted as anything other than rankly heretical.

If it was said, “People of all faiths are equal, with God ruling them as a king in his kingdom”, there would be some way to force it in to an orthodox interpretation. As penned, there is not. Such is my judgment.
 
Without referring to an apparition i just want to ask

Would Mary say this?

"Before God all the faiths are identical. God governs them like a king in his kingdom.”

Could it ever be theologically interpreted in an orthodox manner. To me it sounds like outright heresy?
It sounds like heresy because it is heresy. It is blasphemous to put such words in the mouth of Our Blessed Mother.
 
Without referring to an apparition i just want to ask
Could it be because the apparition you are not mentioning is a banned topic on this forum?
Would Mary say this?
"Before God all the faiths are identical. God governs them like a king in his kingdom.”
Could it ever be theologically interpreted in an orthodox manner. To me it sounds like outright heresy?
It is outright heresy.
 
Without referring to an apparition i just want to ask

Would Mary say this?

"Before God all the faiths are identical. God governs them like a king in his kingdom.”

Could it ever be theologically interpreted in an orthodox manner. To me it sounds like outright heresy?
Accepting your supposed Marian message as a hypothetical, one needs to keep in mind there is no record anywhere of Our Lady ever having said that.

Also, keep in mind that only a select few people in history ever claimed to have heard Blessed Mary, and the rest of us have to hope that those who said they heard her repeat with complete accuracy what Our Lady said. We know, for example, that Lucia of Fatima made a mistake in repeating Our Lady to the rest of us on October 13, 1917 when she said Our Lady told her ‘the war [WW I] will end today’ (meaning it would end Oct 13 1917) - it actually ended more than a year later.

So first, we have to hope a ‘seer’ gets it right.

And second, while there is no record in history of Blessed Mary saying that before God all faiths are identical, there is an alleged record (again, through an interpreter [seer], so to speak) of her having said:

“**All religions are not equal. ***All men ***are equal before God. *It does not suffice to belong to the Catholic Church to be saved *. *It is necessary to respect and obey the commandants of God in following one’s conscience. *. [true - Jesus said we must act our faith, and not just honor Him with talk, with our lips. One’s being baptized a Catholic is not a guarantee of salvation.]”

(I believe the OP is what is called a straw man.)

God bless you.
 
That is heresy. I spent about three or four minutes trying to read it through a hermeneutic of orthodoxy, but, with how it is phrased, I do not believe that even with the greatest latitude given, that such text can be interpreted as anything other than rankly heretical.

If it was said, “People of all faiths are equal, with God ruling them as a king in his kingdom”, there would be some way to force it in to an orthodox interpretation. As penned, there is not. Such is my judgment.
Thanks. I agree
 
Without referring to an apparition i just want to ask

Would Mary say this?

"Before God all the faiths are identical. God governs them like a king in his kingdom.”

Could it ever be theologically interpreted in an orthodox manner. To me it sounds like outright heresy?
It is heresy. Anathema to those who say, "Before God all the faiths are identical. God governs them like a king in his kingdom.”
 
It is heresy. Anathema to those who say, "Before God all the faiths are identical. God governs them like a king in his kingdom.”
Sounds like heresy to me. Imagine…next they’ll be encouraging disobedience to bishops :eek:
 
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