J
juliamajor
Guest
Gee thanks- praying out loud! Oh boy I’m thrilled As far as your points go.1. Slavery- the way it was talked about by paul in his letter to Philemon- is irrelevent- he was not talking about spiritual slavery - but physical.2. sin doesn’t prevail over scripture but God Does let the writers human nature come through- God has more respect for his creations then using them merely as an’automatic’writer. God doesn’t use perfect humans to do his will-Jacob and Peter to name a few.3. Was expressions of culture just automatically pencilled out in scripture? Read Pilch and Malina-so many things that make no sense to us 21st c. folks made perfect sense to those alive at the time-Book of Revelation- primary example. But there are many others. The woman with the hemmorhage that lasted many years- was she seeking some kind of magic- or did what she did make sense in the culture of the time.?(women couldn’t touch men directly and having a issue of blood made her unclean and cut off from her community.Jesus’ pray shawl with it’s tassels was on him - - in Jewish thought the Tallit was an extension of that person- so by touching it she was really spiritually touching him. So by being healed she not only was cured of her illness but also was cured of being an outsider- she could now participate fully in Jewish life and be part of the community really more important in the long run>)Sacred Scripture is infallible Divine Revelation, and is relevant to every person and every generation. Therefore the following interpretations cannot be correct:
However, I don’t think that the correct interpretation need be entirely literal. Women are to be silent in the sense of not taking certain roles given only to men within the Church, thus they are not to speak from a role of authority, leadership, or teaching that is given only to men. But they can certainly participate in the Mass by praying outloud and singing and speaking to one another at the sign of peace. So being mute is not the meaning of the verse.
- any interpretation which concludes that the verse is irrelevant today, as if Divine Revelation, in any part, has lost its meaning
- any interpretation which claims that any part of Scripture is an expression of the sinfulness of the human author, as if sin prevailed over inspiration to any extent
- any interpretation which claims that any part of Scripture is merely an expression of culture, or of the personal views of the author, as if every part were not divinely inspired.