In 1 Corinthians 15:34-36 Paul makes no exception for being under the authority or assisting a priest. He plainly says that women are to be silent and not speak. Unless the Catholic Church is in error with female readers, then Paul’s statement cannot literally mean that women cannot speak. There must have been some circumstance in the Corinthian church that nescessitated this comment by Paul and it would not be a general prohibition of speaking.
Similarly with 1 Timothy 2:11-15. In saying that women are not to teach or have authority over men, he goes on to say that a woman will be preserved through child bearing. Where does that leave a barren or single woman? Who Paul urge virginity if child bearing is necessary? Again it would seem then that Paul cannot be laying down a general rule but something that applied to Ephesus at the time of his writing.
In the time of these writings, there was a Court of Women in the Temple. Now, being honest, I don’t know exactly how the change came about in the Catholic Church to accept women lectors. It may have to do with the examples you provided with Priscilla and Aquila ‘expounded’ to Apollos the way of the Lord. If you check the interpretation for the Greek word used for ‘expounded’, you’ll see it does not say teach. Also, scriptures do not say how the process went. I don’t want to ‘guess’ for the purposes of supporting my argument, just as I feel it would be wrong for you to assume she was more than assisting her husband, that we know Paul taught for women to be subject too. We know from Romans 16:3, Paul referred to both of them as his ‘helpers’. Helpers work under the authority of, just as lectors work under the authority of the priest.
Another point is, because a Protestant assumes the Catholic Church to be in error makes it ok for them to also be in error? I’m not sure of the message you’re trying to convey with your choice of wording.
In 1 Timothy 2:11, St. Paul states to let women learn in silence with all subjection. In verse 12 he states a woman should not teach or use authority over a man. Adding in speculation of barren or single women has nothing to do with the statement. St. Paul doesn’t specify a difference between women. Another aspect is to look at God’s command to be fruitful and multiply, are those could not multiply outside of God’s eye? We saw the story of a eunuch that became a believer, once Philip explained scriptures to him.
If you want to venture further that verse 12, let’s look at what it says.
**1Ti 2:13 For Adam was first formed; then Eve.
1Ti 2:14 And Adam was not seduced; but the woman, being seduced, was in the transgression.
1Ti 2:15 Yet she shall be saved through child bearing; if she continue in faith and love and sanctification with sobriety. **
This brings us back to Genesis and to what St. Paul told the Corinthians.
Gen 3:16 To the woman also he said: I will multiply thy sorrows, and thy conceptions: in sorrow shalt thou bring forth children, and thou shalt be under thy husband’s power, and he shall have dominion over thee.
1Co 11:8 For the man is not of the woman: but the woman of the man.
1Co 11:9 For the man was not created for the woman: but the woman for the man.
Looking more closely at what St. Paul told the Corinthians, we see specifically the subject of teaching approached. As discussed, reading is not teaching…understanding what is read is learning. Learning comes from being taught. If they would learn anything, let them ask their husbands at home. Now it seems the shame of a woman speaking in the Church is to speak, teaching or using authority.
1Co 14:34 Let women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted them to speak but to be subject, as also the law saith.
1Co 14:35 But if they would learn anything, let them ask their husbands at home. For it is a shame for a woman to speak in the church.
I’m glad I started this thread. It has caused me more to research…
