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AveChriste11
Guest
I’m sorry I’ve never understood these verses from Paul. Am I to assume that women aren’t allowed to ask theological questions either? When taken literally it sounds like Paul doesn’t want women to speak period. And what is his reasoning that a woman cannot teach a man? I have much to learn even from them. Many school teachers are female so I really don’t understand these verses.Scripture actually does say so emphatically on several occasions.
1 Timothy 2:12: “But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp [assume] authority over the man, but to be in silence.”
Note that “usurp” did not then mean “take by force”, but merely “to assume”, with an implication of illegitimacy. Some use the KJV rendering of “usurp” to mean that men can lawfully cede their authority to women if done in accordance with the will of men, and thereby nullify the Scripture by the traditions of man (Mark 7:13).
1 Corinthians 14:34-35: “Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience as also saith the law. And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.”
I could multiply at least a few more examples (such as 1 Corinthians 11 passim), but two should be enough to establish the teaching.