Words of Christ

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I need to know so I can answer to non-catholic! Did Christ use the words “touto gignetai” which is saying has become or turned into or “touto esti” which represents or stands for when he said this is my body and blood?
 
Here is the Latin translation of the Eucharist:

Matthew 26
26 Cenantibus autem eis, accepit Iesus panem et benedixit ac fregit deditque discipulis et ait: “ Accipite, comedite: hoc est corpus meum ”.
27 Et accipiens calicem, gratias egit et dedit illis dicens: “ Bibite ex hoc omnes:
28 hic est enim sanguis meus novi testamenti, qui pro multis effunditur in remissionem peccatorum.

Luke 22
19 Et accepto pane, gratias egit et fregit et dedit eis dicens: “ Hoc est corpus meum, quod pro vobis datur. Hoc facite in meam commemorationem ”.
20 Similiter et calicem, postquam cenavit, dicens: “ Hic calix novum testamentum est in sanguine meo, qui pro vobis funditur.
 
I was talking about Christ using these words himself which I assume is in aramaic but find an answer by Karl Keeting saying that “esti” means “to be” which is “is” in english and the word “represent” is used secondly for its meaning. He stated the the CC never said Christ used the words “touto gignetai” which means this has become. I guess “esti” fulfills the meaning enough but still am wondering why Christ didn’t use “gignetai”.
 
Matthew 26:26 touto estin to soma mou…τουτο εστιν το σωμα μου
Matthew 26:28 touto gar estin to aima mou…τουτο γαρ εστιν το αιμα μου
Mark 14:22 touto estin to soma mou…τουτο εστιν το σωμα μου
Mark 14:24 touto estin to aima mou… τουτο εστιν το αιμα μου
Luke 22:19 touto estin to soma mou…τουτο εστιν το σωμα μου
1 Corinthians 11:24 touto mou estin to soma… τουτο μου εστιν το σωμα

no gignetai
 
Christ didn’t use the word “become” because the Eucharist is Jesus, it dose not become Jesus. He said, “This is My Body.” It would be foolish to say, “This is to become My Body.”
 
I am utterly confused on this topic. Christ didn’t speak Latin, hence he did not use *any *of the words mentioned. Are you talking about the Vulgate?

Anyone know the Greek and/or Aramaic? Or could anyone clue me in as to why we’re talking about Latin?
 
Prodigal_Son said:
I am utterly confused on this topic. Christ didn’t speak Latin, hence he did not use *any *of the words mentioned. Are you talking about the Vulgate?

Anyone know the Greek and/or Aramaic? Or could anyone clue me in as to why we’re talking about Latin?
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oh 🙂 post #5 I just took the greek and gave it roman letters
 
Karl Keating answered my question in his book Catholicism and fundamentalism on pages 64-65 that I found online after posting my question. I was talking about Christ speaking in John 6 and was trying to understand why he used “touto esti” and not “touto gignetai” to explain to a friend. These are Greek translations but didn’t Christ speak in Aramaic or was it both?
 
Lmray61 said:
Karl Keating answered my question in his book Catholicism and fundamentalism on pages 64-65 that I found online after posting my question. I was talking about Christ speaking in John 6 and was trying to understand why he used “touto esti” and not “touto gignetai” to explain to a friend. These are Greek translations but didn’t Christ speak in Aramaic or was it both?
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Aramaic.
 
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